GCU NUR 641E / NUR-641E: ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY ESSENTIALS | GRAND
CANYON UNIVERSITY | VERIFIED EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS - LATEST
VERSION 2026/2027 (PASS GUARANTEE)
1. A patient's cardiac myocytes show reversible cell injury after brief ischemia.
Which cellular change is most characteristic of this process?
A. Nuclear pyknosis
B. Cell membrane rupture
C. Cellular swelling due to Na+/K+-ATPase failure ANSWER
D. Mitochondrial ghost formation
2. A biopsy reveals hepatocytes with homogeneous pink cytoplasm and loss of
organelle detail but intact cell membranes. This morphology best represents:
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Hydropic degeneration ANSWER
C. Liquefactive necrosis
D. Apoptosis
3. Which of the following best characterizes apoptosis versus necrosis?
A. Apoptosis triggers an inflammatory response; necrosis does not
B. Apoptosis causes membrane disruption; necrosis preserves membranes
C. Apoptosis involves programmed cell death with membrane-bound
bodies; necrosis involves passive cell death with membrane disruption
ANSWER
D. Apoptosis is associated with ATP depletion; necrosis requires energy
4. A patient with chronic hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. This
cardiac adaptation is best classified as:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Atrophy
C. Metaplasia
, D. Hypertrophy ANSWER
5. Coagulative necrosis is most characteristically associated with:
A. Brain infarction
B. Myocardial infarction ANSWER
C. Pancreatic necrosis
D. Abscess formation
6. Free radical injury to cells is primarily mediated by damage to which cellular
component?
A. Ribosomes
B. Lipid membranes via peroxidation ANSWER
C. Nuclear pores
D. Cytoskeletal proteins only
7. A chronic smoker's bronchial epithelium transitions from ciliated columnar to
squamous epithelium. This is an example of:
A. Dysplasia
B. Hyperplasia
C. Metaplasia ANSWER
D. Anaplasia
8. Which of the following represents an irreversible sign of cell injury?
A. Cellular swelling
B. Ribosomal detachment from ER
C. Flocculent densities in mitochondrial matrix ANSWER
D. Clumping of nuclear chromatin
9. A patient with prolonged hypoxia shows cellular changes. Which mitochondrial
change indicates irreversible injury?
A. Swelling of the mitochondrial matrix
B. Amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix ANSWER
C. Decreased ATP production
D. Increased membrane permeability
10. Liquefactive necrosis is the hallmark of infarction in which organ?
A. Heart
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
, D. Brain ANSWER
11. Which chemical mediator is primarily responsible for the immediate phase of
increased vascular permeability in acute inflammation?
A. Bradykinin
B. Histamine ANSWER
C. Leukotriene C4
D. Prostaglandin E2
12. A patient develops redness, heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function at a
wound site. These are the cardinal signs of inflammation. Which mediator
primarily causes pain (dolor)?
A. Histamine
B. Serotonin
C. Prostaglandin E2 and bradykinin ANSWER
D. Complement C3a
13. Neutrophils are the predominant cells in acute inflammation. Which process
describes their movement from vessels to the tissue?
A. Opsonization
B. Transmigration (diapedesis) ANSWER
C. Chemotaxis
D. Margination
14. Which complement component acts as an opsonin, coating bacteria to enhance
phagocytosis?
A. C1q
B. C3b ANSWER
C. C5a
D. C9
15. A granuloma is the hallmark of which type of inflammation?
A. Acute serous inflammation
B. Fibrinous inflammation
C. Chronic granulomatous inflammation ANSWER
D. Suppurative inflammation
16. A patient with tuberculosis has a positive tuberculin skin test. This reaction is
primarily mediated by:
, A. IgE antibodies and mast cells
B. CD4+ T lymphocytes (Type IV hypersensitivity) ANSWER
C. Complement activation
D. Neutrophil degranulation
17. C-reactive protein (CRP) is produced by the liver as part of the acute phase
response. Its primary function in inflammation is:
A. Acting as a direct bactericidal agent
B. Binding phospholipids on microorganisms to activate complement
ANSWER
C. Inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis
D. Stimulating T-cell proliferation
18. Leukotrienes C4, D4, and E4 are most responsible for which effect in asthma?
A. Vasodilation
B. Increased vascular permeability and bronchoconstriction ANSWER
C. Neutrophil recruitment
D. Mast cell degranulation
19. Which of the following best describes the process of resolution in acute
inflammation?
A. Replacement of damaged tissue with scar tissue
B. Restoration of normal tissue structure and function ANSWER
C. Formation of a granuloma
D. Progression to chronic inflammation
20. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) and TNF-alpha are endogenous pyrogens that cause fever
by stimulating the production of which mediator in the hypothalamus?
A. Histamine
B. Bradykinin
C. Prostaglandin E2 ANSWER
D. Serotonin
21. A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) has antibodies against
double-stranded DNA. This represents which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Type I (IgE-mediated)
B. Type II (cytotoxic)
C. Type III (immune complex) ANSWER
CANYON UNIVERSITY | VERIFIED EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS - LATEST
VERSION 2026/2027 (PASS GUARANTEE)
1. A patient's cardiac myocytes show reversible cell injury after brief ischemia.
Which cellular change is most characteristic of this process?
A. Nuclear pyknosis
B. Cell membrane rupture
C. Cellular swelling due to Na+/K+-ATPase failure ANSWER
D. Mitochondrial ghost formation
2. A biopsy reveals hepatocytes with homogeneous pink cytoplasm and loss of
organelle detail but intact cell membranes. This morphology best represents:
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Hydropic degeneration ANSWER
C. Liquefactive necrosis
D. Apoptosis
3. Which of the following best characterizes apoptosis versus necrosis?
A. Apoptosis triggers an inflammatory response; necrosis does not
B. Apoptosis causes membrane disruption; necrosis preserves membranes
C. Apoptosis involves programmed cell death with membrane-bound
bodies; necrosis involves passive cell death with membrane disruption
ANSWER
D. Apoptosis is associated with ATP depletion; necrosis requires energy
4. A patient with chronic hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. This
cardiac adaptation is best classified as:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Atrophy
C. Metaplasia
, D. Hypertrophy ANSWER
5. Coagulative necrosis is most characteristically associated with:
A. Brain infarction
B. Myocardial infarction ANSWER
C. Pancreatic necrosis
D. Abscess formation
6. Free radical injury to cells is primarily mediated by damage to which cellular
component?
A. Ribosomes
B. Lipid membranes via peroxidation ANSWER
C. Nuclear pores
D. Cytoskeletal proteins only
7. A chronic smoker's bronchial epithelium transitions from ciliated columnar to
squamous epithelium. This is an example of:
A. Dysplasia
B. Hyperplasia
C. Metaplasia ANSWER
D. Anaplasia
8. Which of the following represents an irreversible sign of cell injury?
A. Cellular swelling
B. Ribosomal detachment from ER
C. Flocculent densities in mitochondrial matrix ANSWER
D. Clumping of nuclear chromatin
9. A patient with prolonged hypoxia shows cellular changes. Which mitochondrial
change indicates irreversible injury?
A. Swelling of the mitochondrial matrix
B. Amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix ANSWER
C. Decreased ATP production
D. Increased membrane permeability
10. Liquefactive necrosis is the hallmark of infarction in which organ?
A. Heart
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
, D. Brain ANSWER
11. Which chemical mediator is primarily responsible for the immediate phase of
increased vascular permeability in acute inflammation?
A. Bradykinin
B. Histamine ANSWER
C. Leukotriene C4
D. Prostaglandin E2
12. A patient develops redness, heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function at a
wound site. These are the cardinal signs of inflammation. Which mediator
primarily causes pain (dolor)?
A. Histamine
B. Serotonin
C. Prostaglandin E2 and bradykinin ANSWER
D. Complement C3a
13. Neutrophils are the predominant cells in acute inflammation. Which process
describes their movement from vessels to the tissue?
A. Opsonization
B. Transmigration (diapedesis) ANSWER
C. Chemotaxis
D. Margination
14. Which complement component acts as an opsonin, coating bacteria to enhance
phagocytosis?
A. C1q
B. C3b ANSWER
C. C5a
D. C9
15. A granuloma is the hallmark of which type of inflammation?
A. Acute serous inflammation
B. Fibrinous inflammation
C. Chronic granulomatous inflammation ANSWER
D. Suppurative inflammation
16. A patient with tuberculosis has a positive tuberculin skin test. This reaction is
primarily mediated by:
, A. IgE antibodies and mast cells
B. CD4+ T lymphocytes (Type IV hypersensitivity) ANSWER
C. Complement activation
D. Neutrophil degranulation
17. C-reactive protein (CRP) is produced by the liver as part of the acute phase
response. Its primary function in inflammation is:
A. Acting as a direct bactericidal agent
B. Binding phospholipids on microorganisms to activate complement
ANSWER
C. Inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis
D. Stimulating T-cell proliferation
18. Leukotrienes C4, D4, and E4 are most responsible for which effect in asthma?
A. Vasodilation
B. Increased vascular permeability and bronchoconstriction ANSWER
C. Neutrophil recruitment
D. Mast cell degranulation
19. Which of the following best describes the process of resolution in acute
inflammation?
A. Replacement of damaged tissue with scar tissue
B. Restoration of normal tissue structure and function ANSWER
C. Formation of a granuloma
D. Progression to chronic inflammation
20. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) and TNF-alpha are endogenous pyrogens that cause fever
by stimulating the production of which mediator in the hypothalamus?
A. Histamine
B. Bradykinin
C. Prostaglandin E2 ANSWER
D. Serotonin
21. A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) has antibodies against
double-stranded DNA. This represents which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Type I (IgE-mediated)
B. Type II (cytotoxic)
C. Type III (immune complex) ANSWER
