NUR 621 Module 3 Exam | Questions & Answers | 2026 Update |
Comprehensive Nursing Study Guide | Utica College | PDF
A 62-year-old patient presents with a wide, diffuse area of erythematous skin on their lower left
leg that is warm and tender to palpation. There is some edema involved. The most likely
diagnosis is: Question 1Select one: a. Cellulitis b. A diabetic ulcer c. Necrotizing fasciitis d.
Kaposi’s sarcoma
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
a. Cellulitis
Explanation:
• Cellulitis → acute bacterial infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
o Findings: diffuse erythema, warmth, tenderness, edema.
• Diabetic ulcer → localized open sore, usually not diffuse erythema.
• Necrotizing fasciitis → severe pain out of proportion, rapid progression,
systemic toxicity.
• Kaposi’s sarcoma → vascular tumor (HIV/AIDS), presents as purple-red nodules
or plaques, not acutely warm/tender.
Final: Cellulitis.
Would you like me to also make a skin infection quick chart (cellulitis vs erysipelas vs nec fasc
vs ulcers) for your NUR-621 review?
You said:
Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs? Question 2Select one: a.
Alopecia areata b. Telogen effluvium (TE) c. Psoriasis d. Trichotillomania
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
b. Telogen effluvium (TE)
Explanation:
• Telogen effluvium = diffuse, temporary hair shedding that occurs when a large number
of hairs shift into the telogen (resting) phase.
o Triggers: fever, illness, surgery, childbirth, medications, stress.
• Alopecia areata → autoimmune, patchy hair loss.
• Psoriasis → scaly, erythematous plaques, not drug/fever related.
• Trichotillomania → compulsive hair pulling, not triggered by fever or drugs.
,Final: Telogen effluvium.
, Do you want me to also make a hair/scalp disorder comparison table (alopecia areata, TE,
tinea capitis, trichotillomania) for your exam prep?
You said:
A patient has a rubbery, smooth, round mass on their chest that is compressible and has a soft-to-
very-firm texture. What is the most likely diagnosis? Question 3Select one: a. An adenoma b. A
nevus c. A skin tag d. A lipoma
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
d. A lipoma
Explanation:
• Lipoma → benign tumor of adipose tissue.
o Features: rubbery, smooth, round, compressible, can feel soft to firm, mobile
under skin.
• Adenoma → benign glandular tumor, usually internal organs (not soft
subcutaneous chest mass).
• Nevus → mole, pigmented lesion, not compressible.
• Skin tag (acrochordon) → soft, pedunculated growth, not deep or compressible.
Final: Lipoma.
Would you like me to also prepare a “common benign skin lesions” chart (lipoma, nevus, skin
tag, seborrheic keratosis) for quick recall?
You said:
When staging a malignant melanoma using Clark’s levels, which level extends into the reticular
dermis? Question 4Select one: a. Level III b. Level IV c. Level II d. Level I
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
b. Level IV
Explanation (Clark’s Levels of Melanoma Invasion):
• Level I → confined to epidermis (in situ).
• Level II → invades papillary dermis.
• Level III → fills the papillary dermis but not into reticular dermis.
• Level IV → invades the reticular dermis.
Comprehensive Nursing Study Guide | Utica College | PDF
A 62-year-old patient presents with a wide, diffuse area of erythematous skin on their lower left
leg that is warm and tender to palpation. There is some edema involved. The most likely
diagnosis is: Question 1Select one: a. Cellulitis b. A diabetic ulcer c. Necrotizing fasciitis d.
Kaposi’s sarcoma
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
a. Cellulitis
Explanation:
• Cellulitis → acute bacterial infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
o Findings: diffuse erythema, warmth, tenderness, edema.
• Diabetic ulcer → localized open sore, usually not diffuse erythema.
• Necrotizing fasciitis → severe pain out of proportion, rapid progression,
systemic toxicity.
• Kaposi’s sarcoma → vascular tumor (HIV/AIDS), presents as purple-red nodules
or plaques, not acutely warm/tender.
Final: Cellulitis.
Would you like me to also make a skin infection quick chart (cellulitis vs erysipelas vs nec fasc
vs ulcers) for your NUR-621 review?
You said:
Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs? Question 2Select one: a.
Alopecia areata b. Telogen effluvium (TE) c. Psoriasis d. Trichotillomania
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
b. Telogen effluvium (TE)
Explanation:
• Telogen effluvium = diffuse, temporary hair shedding that occurs when a large number
of hairs shift into the telogen (resting) phase.
o Triggers: fever, illness, surgery, childbirth, medications, stress.
• Alopecia areata → autoimmune, patchy hair loss.
• Psoriasis → scaly, erythematous plaques, not drug/fever related.
• Trichotillomania → compulsive hair pulling, not triggered by fever or drugs.
,Final: Telogen effluvium.
, Do you want me to also make a hair/scalp disorder comparison table (alopecia areata, TE,
tinea capitis, trichotillomania) for your exam prep?
You said:
A patient has a rubbery, smooth, round mass on their chest that is compressible and has a soft-to-
very-firm texture. What is the most likely diagnosis? Question 3Select one: a. An adenoma b. A
nevus c. A skin tag d. A lipoma
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
d. A lipoma
Explanation:
• Lipoma → benign tumor of adipose tissue.
o Features: rubbery, smooth, round, compressible, can feel soft to firm, mobile
under skin.
• Adenoma → benign glandular tumor, usually internal organs (not soft
subcutaneous chest mass).
• Nevus → mole, pigmented lesion, not compressible.
• Skin tag (acrochordon) → soft, pedunculated growth, not deep or compressible.
Final: Lipoma.
Would you like me to also prepare a “common benign skin lesions” chart (lipoma, nevus, skin
tag, seborrheic keratosis) for quick recall?
You said:
When staging a malignant melanoma using Clark’s levels, which level extends into the reticular
dermis? Question 4Select one: a. Level III b. Level IV c. Level II d. Level I
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
b. Level IV
Explanation (Clark’s Levels of Melanoma Invasion):
• Level I → confined to epidermis (in situ).
• Level II → invades papillary dermis.
• Level III → fills the papillary dermis but not into reticular dermis.
• Level IV → invades the reticular dermis.
