NUR 120 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE 2026

NUR 120 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE 2026 What does ADPIE stand for in the nursing process? - Answers Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation What is the primary purpose of the nursing process? - Answers To provide holistic, patient-centered, safe, and evidence-based care. What is the first step in the nursing process? - Answers Assessment What types of data are collected during the assessment phase? - Answers Subjective and objective data. What is subjective data? - Answers Data that reflects what the patient says. What is objective data? - Answers Data that can be observed or measured. What is the definition of diagnosis in the nursing process? - Answers Clinical judgment about patient responses. What are the two formats for nursing diagnoses? - Answers Actual (3-part) and Risk (2-part) formats. What is an example of an actual nursing diagnosis? - Answers Impaired mobility R/T pain AEB inability to walk. What is the goal of the planning phase in the nursing process? - Answers To create measurable and patient-centered goals and outcomes. What is the difference between a goal and an outcome? - Answers Goals are broad and long-term; outcomes are specific and measurable. What is the purpose of evaluation in the nursing process? - Answers To determine if the plan worked and if the patient met their goals. What is medical asepsis? - Answers A clean technique that reduces the number of microorganisms. What is surgical asepsis? - Answers A sterile technique that completely eliminates all microorganisms. What is active immunity? - Answers Immunity that occurs when the body makes antibodies after exposure to an infection or vaccination. What is passive immunity? - Answers Immunity that occurs when antibodies are given to a person, rather than produced by their own body. What are the stages of infection? - Answers Incubation, Prodromal, Illness, Convalescence. What is the chain of infection? - Answers Infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host. What is the role of hand hygiene in infection control? - Answers To prevent the spread of infections by reducing the number of microorganisms. What are standard precautions? - Answers Infection control practices used for all patients, including hand hygiene and PPE. What is the purpose of transmission-based precautions? - Answers To prevent the spread of infections based on how they are transmitted. What is the significance of multi-drug resistant organisms (MDROs)? - Answers They are harder to treat and prevention is key. What are the critical rules for surgical asepsis? - Answers Sterile touches sterile only; anything below the waist is contaminated. What does the acronym MRS. WEE stand for in contact precautions? - Answers Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, Respiratory infections, Skin infections, Wound infections, Enteric infections. What should be done before touching a patient? - Answers Perform hand hygiene. What is the importance of patient education in nursing? - Answers To protect the patient and ensure understanding of their care. What is the NCLEX tip for evaluation? - Answers Always compare expected vs actual outcomes. What are the six components of the chain of infection? - Answers Pathogen, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host. What is the difference between medical and surgical asepsis? - Answers Medical asepsis reduces the number of pathogens, while surgical asepsis eliminates all pathogens. What is the correct order for donning PPE? - Answers Gown, mask, goggles, gloves. What are the types of isolation in healthcare? - Answers Contact, droplet, airborne, and protective isolation. What is the normal range for white blood cell (WBC) count? - Answers 4,500 to 11,000 cells per microliter. What is the difference between active and passive immunity? - Answers Active immunity is developed through exposure to pathogens, while passive immunity is acquired through antibodies from another source. What should you do immediately after exposure to a potentially infectious material? - Answers Wash the area immediately. What is the purpose of reporting an exposure incident? - Answers To ensure proper follow-up and prevent further incidents. What is metacommunication? - Answers The combination of verbal and nonverbal cues in communication. What is the primary goal during the introductory phase of a nursing interview? - Answers To build trust and rapport with the patient. What are the four zones of personal space? - Answers Intimate space (0-18 inches), personal space (18 inches-4 feet), social space (4-12 feet), public space (more than 12 feet). What is the difference between sympathy and empathy in nursing? - Answers Sympathy is feeling sorry for the patient, while empathy is understanding the patient's feelings. What are the elements of the communication process? - Answers Referent, sender, receiver, message, channel, feedback, environment. What are open-ended questions used for in nursing interviews? - Answers To encourage detailed answers from patients. What is the purpose of closed-ended questions in nursing? - Answers To obtain specific information or clarification. What should be avoided in professional nursing communication? - Answers Nontherapeutic communication such as false reassurance, judgment, and sympathy. What are some strategies for communicating with patients who have hearing impairments? - Answers Face the patient, speak clearly, reduce background noise, and use hearing aids or interpreters. What is the SOLER technique in active listening? - Answers Sit squarely, Open posture, Lean forward, Eye contact, Relax. What is the purpose of incident reports in healthcare? - Answers To document errors or accidents and improve safety, not to punish staff. What are the legal guidelines for documentation in nursing? - Answers Document chronologically, include date and time, and correct errors properly. What is the importance of hand hygiene in infection control? - Answers It is the primary method to prevent the spread of infections. What should be included in patient documentation? - Answers Assessments, interventions, teaching, and patient responses. What is the role of feedback in the communication process? - Answers To show whether the message was understood. What are therapeutic communication techniques? - Answers Silence, validation, paraphrasing, and clarifying. What is the significance of cultural considerations in nursing communication? - Answers Culture affects thinking, behavior, and health beliefs; nurses should respect differences. What is the role of electronic communication in healthcare? - Answers To facilitate accurate, confidential, and professional documentation. What should be done when a patient does not speak English? - Answers Use professional interpreters instead of family members or children. What should you do if a physician's order is unclear? - Answers Clarify the order and document the clarification. What is a key legal guideline for documentation? - Answers Never leave blank spaces; draw a line through unused space. What are generalized phrases in documentation? - Answers Avoid using generalized phrases; document only specific findings. What is considered falsification in nursing documentation? - Answers Charting ahead of time is considered falsification. What type of abbreviations should be used in documentation? - Answers Only use approved abbreviations. What are the purposes of documentation? - Answers Communication, recording orders, care planning, quality review, research, education, legal documentation, reimbursement, and historical documentation. What does HIPAA stand for? - Answers Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. What are some examples of HIPAA violations? - Answers Looking at a chart when not assigned, leaving a chart open, talking about a patient in public, sharing patient info with unauthorized people. What are the consequences of HIPAA violations? - Answers Fines, loss of job, loss of nursing license, legal consequences. What are the principles of quality documentation? - Answers Documentation must be factual, accurate, legible, timely, complete, current, and organized. What does ABC stand for in quality documentation? - Answers A = Accurate, B = Brief, C = Complete. What is the purpose of an Incident Report? - Answers To document accidents/unusual events and improve safety. What types of charting are commonly used? - Answers Narrative notes, SOAP notes, and charting by exception. What is an EMR? - Answers Electronic Medical Record - a computerized patient chart. What should be included in a change-of-shift report? - Answers Room number, diagnosis, physician, assessment findings, treatments, orders, response to therapy. What is SBAR in communication? - Answers Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation. What is cultural competence in nursing? - Answers The ability to provide safe and respectful care to people from different cultures. What does cultural diversity refer to? - Answers Different cultures existing together in the same environment. What are health disparities? - Answers Differences in healthcare outcomes among groups, often affecting marginalized populations. What is intersectionality? - Answers The interconnected nature of social categorizations such as race, class, and gender. What is acculturation? - Answers The gradual adoption of traits from another culture while maintaining one's original culture. What are social determinants of health? - Answers Conditions that affect health outcomes, such as education access. What is the purpose of nursing conferences? - Answers To discuss patient problems and care plans among nurses. What should be documented in a telephone order? - Answers Date/time, who was called, information given, orders received. What is the significance of the MAR? - Answers Medication Administration Record tracks medication, dose, route, time, and nurse initials/signature. What is the role of documentation in legal contexts? - Answers The chart can be used in court; if you didn't document it, you didn't do it. What are Social Determinants of Health (SDOH)? - Answers Conditions that affect health outcomes, including education access, healthcare access, economic stability, neighborhood/environment, and community/social support. Define Assimilation in cultural context. - Answers When someone gradually adopts traits from another culture while maintaining their original culture. What is the problem with treating everyone the same in healthcare? - Answers It ignores differences in beliefs, needs, comfort levels, and communication styles among patients. What is the Golden Rule Problem in healthcare? - Answers The idea of treating others how you want to be treated can fail culturally; a better approach is to treat patients how they want to be treated. What is Implicit (Unconscious) Bias? - Answers Biases we are not aware we have, which can affect nursing care. What is a stereotype? - Answers An oversimplified belief about a group of people. What does Cultural Awareness entail? - Answers Recognizing that your culture affects you and that other cultures may think differently, without judging. What is Cultural Sensitivity? - Answers Being aware of and respecting cultural differences. What should be assessed in a Cultural Assessment? - Answers Language, religion, dietary practices, family roles, pain beliefs, communication style, healthcare beliefs, and support systems. What is Cultural Humility? - Answers Understanding that you do not know everything about a patient's culture and valuing their expertise. What are important sources of support for patients? - Answers Extended family, church, community elders, and not always immediate family. How can time orientation affect patient care? - Answers Some cultures focus on the present, future, or past traditions, which can affect punctuality and treatment decisions. What is the role of a communicator in nursing? - Answers Using therapeutic communication techniques, such as interpreters and active listening, to avoid assumptions about understanding. What is the importance of using professional interpreters? - Answers To prevent errors, improve informed consent, and reduce disparities in healthcare. What are examples of cultural barriers in healthcare? - Answers Language barriers, different pain beliefs, distrust of healthcare, religious restrictions, health literacy issues, and financial barriers. How do different cultures express pain? - Answers Some cultures openly express pain while others may remain stoic or silent; never assume a lack of pain based on appearance. What is the significance of informed consent? - Answers Patients must understand information, risks/benefits, and communicate voluntarily; language barriers can invalidate informed consent. What are patient rights in healthcare? - Answers All patients deserve dignity, respect, autonomy, and safe care. What is the role of a care provider in culturally competent care? - Answers Using the nursing process while considering cultural aspects like pain beliefs, religious practices, and dietary needs. What is the difference between equality and equity in healthcare? - Answers Equality means treating everyone the same, while equity involves recognizing and addressing individual differences and needs. What is the purpose of the nursing process? - Answers To provide individualized, culturally responsive care that respects patients' beliefs and preferences. What should be included in the evaluation phase of nursing care? - Answers Assess whether the patient understood the information, if cultural needs were respected, and if outcomes improved. What is the significance of cultural competence in nursing? - Answers It helps reduce healthcare disparities by advocating, educating, listening, and providing equitable care. How should nurses approach dietary restrictions in patients? - Answers Assess safely, educate respectfully, and collaborate with providers regarding dietary needs. What is the importance of assessing pain beliefs in nursing? - Answers Understanding different cultural expressions of pain can improve patient care and communication. What should nurses remember when moving a patient? - Answers Always assess the patient's ability to assist, their strong/weak side, and the need for assistive devices. What are the functions of the skeletal system? - Answers Supports the body, protects organs, helps movement, produces red blood cells, stores minerals/fat, and provides attachment for muscles. What is the role of body mechanics in nursing? - Answers To ensure safe, coordinated movement that maintains balance and prevents injury. What should be done when using a Hoyer lift? - Answers Ensure safety by locking wheels, checking weight limits, and centering the sling before lowering the patient. What is the correct sequence for using a walker? - Answers 1. Walker 2. Weak leg 3. Strong leg. What is the proper technique for lifting objects? - Answers Bend knees, use leg muscles, keep the object close, tighten abdominal/gluteal muscles, and push/pull instead of lifting. What is Fowler's Position? - Answers A position with the head of the bed elevated at 45-60° used for eating and breathing. What is Semi-Fowler's Position? - Answers A position with the head of the bed elevated at 30-45°. What is Supine Position? - Answers A position where the patient lies flat on their back. What is Prone Position? - Answers A position where the patient lies on their abdomen/stomach. What is Lateral Position? - Answers A side-lying position. What is Trendelenburg Position? - Answers A position where the head is lower than the feet. What are some causes of back injuries? - Answers Lifting alone, poor body mechanics, lying while tired, standing too long, moving confused patients without help, and not using assistive devices. What is Active Range of Motion (ROM)? - Answers When the patient moves their joints independently. What is Passive Range of Motion (ROM)? - Answers When the nurse moves the patient's joints for them. What are some alternatives to restraints? - Answers Reorientation, family presence, toileting, pain management, diversion activities, and bed alarms. What are the complications of immobility? - Answers Pressure ulcers, pneumonia, blood clots (DVT), and increased cardiac workload. What is the SPICES tool? - Answers A tool for assessing older adults: Sleep disorders, Problems eating/feeding, Incontinence, Confusion, Evidence of falls, Skin breakdown. What are the effects of immobility on the cardiovascular system? - Answers Increased cardiac workload and risk of blood clots. What are the effects of immobility on the respiratory system? - Answers Pooling of secretions, pneumonia, atelectasis, and poor gas exchange. What are the effects of immobility on the gastrointestinal system? - Answers Constipation and decreased peristalsis. What are the effects of immobility on the urinary system? - Answers Urinary stasis, kidney stones, and increased risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs). What are the effects of immobility on the integumentary system? - Answers Pressure injuries and skin breakdown. What are the effects of immobility on the musculoskeletal system? - Answers Muscle atrophy, contractures, and bone loss. What are the psychological effects of immobility? - Answers Depression, low self-esteem, and sleep problems. What is the main idea of Piaget's Cognitive Theory? - Answers Intelligence develops gradually as children mature. What is the focus of Fowler's Spiritual Theory? - Answers Faith development and spiritual beliefs throughout the lifespan. What is the difference between gerontology and geriatrics? - Answers Gerontology is the study of the aging process, while geriatrics is the medical care/treatment of older adults. What are the stages of Freudian Psychosexual Theory? - Answers Oral (0-18 months), Anal (8 months-4 years), Phallic (3-7 years), Latency (7-12 years), Genital (12-20 years). What are common sensory changes in older adults? - Answers Presbyopia (loss of near vision), sensitivity to glare, poor night vision, and slower adjustment to darkness. What is presbycusis? - Answers Age-related hearing loss that usually affects high-frequency sounds first. What are some nursing interventions for sensory overload? - Answers Calm environment, speak slowly, predictable routine, reduce noise, and provide simple explanations. What are some symptoms of sensory deprivation? - Answers Depression, withdrawal, confusion, and hallucinations. What is Sundowning Syndrome? - Answers A condition where confusion and agitation worsen at night, often seen in older adults. What are the genetic factors affecting lifespan? - Answers Genes control lifespan. What does the Wear & Tear theory suggest? - Answers The body 'wears out' over time. How does immunity change with age? - Answers The immune system weakens. What is the Cross-Linkage theory? - Answers It suggests that DNA damage accumulates over time. What is the Free Radical theory? - Answers It posits that cellular damage occurs over time due to free radicals. What are common musculoskeletal changes in older adults? - Answers Loss of height, bone loss, joint stiffness, weak muscles, and poor balance. What are the respiratory changes associated with aging? - Answers Decreased lung expansion, less effective cough, and reduced oxygen exchange. What gastrointestinal changes occur in older adults? - Answers Slower digestion, constipation, reduced nutrient absorption, and delayed swallowing. What urinary changes are common in older adults? - Answers Increased frequency, urgency, nocturia, retention, and incontinence. What reproductive changes occur in aging males? - Answers Enlarged prostate and reduced sexual potency. What reproductive changes occur in aging females? - Answers Vaginal dryness and atrophy of reproductive organs.