140 ORTHOTIC FITTER TEST REVIEW
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2025.
ABC (American Board for Certification in Orthotics, Prosthetics &
Pedorthics) Certification Review
SECTION DISTRIBUTION (ABC Orthotic Fitter Certification Examination
Blueprint)
Section # Questions
Anatomy & Biomechanics (lower 25
extremity, foot/ankle, knee, spine)
Orthotic Devices & Components (AFO, 30
KAFO, FO, spinal, off-the-shelf vs.
custom)
Patient Assessment & Measurement 20
(casting, tracing, measurement
protocols)
Fitting Principles & Adjustments 25
(pressure points, alignment, trim lines,
modifications)
Material Science (thermoplastics, foams, 10
metals, composites, leather)
Pathology & Indications (diabetes, 15
neuropathy, CVA, arthritis, neurological
conditions)
TOTAL 140
SECTION 1: ANATOMY & BIOMECHANICS (LOWER EXTREMITY, FOOT/ANKLE,
KNEE, SPINE) — 25 Questions
During the stance phase of gait, which muscle group contracts eccentrically to control
the forward progression of the tibia over the foot after heel strike?
• A. Quadriceps
• B. Anterior tibialis
• C. Gastrocnemius-soleus complex
• D. Peroneals
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the gastrocnemius-soleus complex controls tibial
advancement through eccentric contraction during midstance, preventing forward
collapse of the tibia.
,Q2: The subtalar joint is primarily responsible for which plane of motion?
• A. Sagittal plane (dorsiflexion/plantarflexion)
• B. Frontal plane (inversion/eversion)
• C. Transverse plane (internal/external rotation)
• D. Horizontal plane (abduction/adduction)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the subtalar joint primarily facilitates triplane motion, with
the dominant clinical motion being inversion and eversion in the frontal plane.
Q3: The tibialis anterior muscle is innervated by which peripheral nerve?
• A. Tibial nerve
• B. Superficial peroneal nerve
• C. Deep peroneal (fibular) nerve
• D. Sural nerve
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the deep peroneal nerve innervates the tibialis anterior,
extensor hallucis longus, and extensor digitorum longus muscles of the anterior
compartment.
Q4: During normal gait, the center of gravity reaches its highest point during which
phase?
• A. Heel strike
• B. Midstance
• C. Toe-off
• D. Swing phase
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the center of gravity is highest at midstance when the body
is directly over the stance limb, creating a sinusoidal vertical displacement pattern.
Q5: Which bone articulates with the talus to form the ankle (talocrural) joint?
• A. Calcaneus
• B. Navicular
• C. Tibia and fibula
• D. Cuboid
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Correct because the talocrural joint is formed by the articulation of the talus
with the distal tibia and fibula (malleoli), allowing primarily sagittal plane motion.
Q6: The normal range of motion for ankle dorsiflexion with the knee flexed at 90
degrees is approximately:
• A. 0-5 degrees
• B. 5-10 degrees
• C. 10-20 degrees
• D. 20-30 degrees
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because normal ankle dorsiflexion with the knee flexed
(gastrocnemius relaxed) is 10-20 degrees; with knee extended (gastrocnemius
stretched), it is typically 0-10 degrees.
Q7: The plantar fascia originates at the calcaneus and inserts into which structures?
• A. Metatarsal heads only
• B. Proximal phalanges only
• C. Metatarsal heads and proximal phalanges
• D. Tarsal bones
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the plantar fascia originates from the medial calcaneal
tubercle and fans out to insert into the bases of the proximal phalanges and metatarsal
heads, forming the longitudinal arch.
Q8: During the gait cycle, the period from foot flat to heel rise is called:
• A. Initial contact
• B. Loading response
• C. Midstance
• D. Terminal stance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because midstance is the phase from foot flat (contralateral toe-off)
to heel rise, with the body directly over the stance foot.
Q9: The knee joint is classified as which type of joint?
• A. Ball-and-socket joint
• B. Hinge joint (ginglymus)
• C. Pivot joint
, • D. Saddle joint
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the knee is a modified hinge joint, allowing primarily flexion
and extension in the sagittal plane with minimal rotation when flexed.
Q10: Which muscle group is primarily responsible for hip extension during late
stance phase of gait?
• A. Iliopsoas
• B. Quadriceps
• C. Gluteus maximus and hamstrings
• D. Adductor magnus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the gluteus maximus and hamstrings (biceps femoris,
semitendinosus, semimembranosus) generate hip extension power during late stance
to propel the body forward.
Q11: The first ray consists of which bones?
• A. First metatarsal and medial cuneiform
• B. First metatarsal and first proximal phalanx
• C. First metatarsal, medial cuneiform, and first cuneiform-navicular articulation
• D. First metatarsal only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the first ray includes the first metatarsal, medial cuneiform,
and their articulations; it functions as a unit during gait for propulsion and weight
bearing.
Q12: During normal gait, the foot pronates maximally during which phase?
• A. Heel strike
• B. Loading response to midstance
• C. Terminal stance
• D. Pre-swing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because maximal pronation occurs during loading response through
midstance, allowing shock absorption and adaptation to terrain before re-supination
for propulsion.
Q13: The peroneus longus and brevis muscles are innervated by which nerve?
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2025.
ABC (American Board for Certification in Orthotics, Prosthetics &
Pedorthics) Certification Review
SECTION DISTRIBUTION (ABC Orthotic Fitter Certification Examination
Blueprint)
Section # Questions
Anatomy & Biomechanics (lower 25
extremity, foot/ankle, knee, spine)
Orthotic Devices & Components (AFO, 30
KAFO, FO, spinal, off-the-shelf vs.
custom)
Patient Assessment & Measurement 20
(casting, tracing, measurement
protocols)
Fitting Principles & Adjustments 25
(pressure points, alignment, trim lines,
modifications)
Material Science (thermoplastics, foams, 10
metals, composites, leather)
Pathology & Indications (diabetes, 15
neuropathy, CVA, arthritis, neurological
conditions)
TOTAL 140
SECTION 1: ANATOMY & BIOMECHANICS (LOWER EXTREMITY, FOOT/ANKLE,
KNEE, SPINE) — 25 Questions
During the stance phase of gait, which muscle group contracts eccentrically to control
the forward progression of the tibia over the foot after heel strike?
• A. Quadriceps
• B. Anterior tibialis
• C. Gastrocnemius-soleus complex
• D. Peroneals
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the gastrocnemius-soleus complex controls tibial
advancement through eccentric contraction during midstance, preventing forward
collapse of the tibia.
,Q2: The subtalar joint is primarily responsible for which plane of motion?
• A. Sagittal plane (dorsiflexion/plantarflexion)
• B. Frontal plane (inversion/eversion)
• C. Transverse plane (internal/external rotation)
• D. Horizontal plane (abduction/adduction)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the subtalar joint primarily facilitates triplane motion, with
the dominant clinical motion being inversion and eversion in the frontal plane.
Q3: The tibialis anterior muscle is innervated by which peripheral nerve?
• A. Tibial nerve
• B. Superficial peroneal nerve
• C. Deep peroneal (fibular) nerve
• D. Sural nerve
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the deep peroneal nerve innervates the tibialis anterior,
extensor hallucis longus, and extensor digitorum longus muscles of the anterior
compartment.
Q4: During normal gait, the center of gravity reaches its highest point during which
phase?
• A. Heel strike
• B. Midstance
• C. Toe-off
• D. Swing phase
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the center of gravity is highest at midstance when the body
is directly over the stance limb, creating a sinusoidal vertical displacement pattern.
Q5: Which bone articulates with the talus to form the ankle (talocrural) joint?
• A. Calcaneus
• B. Navicular
• C. Tibia and fibula
• D. Cuboid
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Correct because the talocrural joint is formed by the articulation of the talus
with the distal tibia and fibula (malleoli), allowing primarily sagittal plane motion.
Q6: The normal range of motion for ankle dorsiflexion with the knee flexed at 90
degrees is approximately:
• A. 0-5 degrees
• B. 5-10 degrees
• C. 10-20 degrees
• D. 20-30 degrees
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because normal ankle dorsiflexion with the knee flexed
(gastrocnemius relaxed) is 10-20 degrees; with knee extended (gastrocnemius
stretched), it is typically 0-10 degrees.
Q7: The plantar fascia originates at the calcaneus and inserts into which structures?
• A. Metatarsal heads only
• B. Proximal phalanges only
• C. Metatarsal heads and proximal phalanges
• D. Tarsal bones
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the plantar fascia originates from the medial calcaneal
tubercle and fans out to insert into the bases of the proximal phalanges and metatarsal
heads, forming the longitudinal arch.
Q8: During the gait cycle, the period from foot flat to heel rise is called:
• A. Initial contact
• B. Loading response
• C. Midstance
• D. Terminal stance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because midstance is the phase from foot flat (contralateral toe-off)
to heel rise, with the body directly over the stance foot.
Q9: The knee joint is classified as which type of joint?
• A. Ball-and-socket joint
• B. Hinge joint (ginglymus)
• C. Pivot joint
, • D. Saddle joint
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the knee is a modified hinge joint, allowing primarily flexion
and extension in the sagittal plane with minimal rotation when flexed.
Q10: Which muscle group is primarily responsible for hip extension during late
stance phase of gait?
• A. Iliopsoas
• B. Quadriceps
• C. Gluteus maximus and hamstrings
• D. Adductor magnus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the gluteus maximus and hamstrings (biceps femoris,
semitendinosus, semimembranosus) generate hip extension power during late stance
to propel the body forward.
Q11: The first ray consists of which bones?
• A. First metatarsal and medial cuneiform
• B. First metatarsal and first proximal phalanx
• C. First metatarsal, medial cuneiform, and first cuneiform-navicular articulation
• D. First metatarsal only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the first ray includes the first metatarsal, medial cuneiform,
and their articulations; it functions as a unit during gait for propulsion and weight
bearing.
Q12: During normal gait, the foot pronates maximally during which phase?
• A. Heel strike
• B. Loading response to midstance
• C. Terminal stance
• D. Pre-swing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because maximal pronation occurs during loading response through
midstance, allowing shock absorption and adaptation to terrain before re-supination
for propulsion.
Q13: The peroneus longus and brevis muscles are innervated by which nerve?
