MED SURG 201 ACTUAL FINAL EXAM 2026 /2027 PRACTICE
QUESTIONS & STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE ACCURATE QUESTIONS
WITH WELL ELABORATED SOLUTIONS AND RATIONALES (100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS) LATEST UPDATED VERSION 2026
EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+ (BRAND NEW!) | JUST
RELEASED|BRAND NEW
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who presents with shortness of
breath, jugular vein distention, and peripheral edema. Which intervention should
the nurse implement first?
A) Administer furosemide as prescribed
B) Place the client in a high-Fowler’s position
C) Restrict daily fluid intake to 1.5 liters
D) Apply sequential compression devices
B) Place the client in a high-Fowler’s position CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: High-Fowler’s position promotes lung expansion and reduces venous
return, easing dyspnea. While furosemide (A) and fluid restriction (C) are
important, positioning is the immediate priority to improve oxygenation.
Sequential compression devices (D) are for DVT prevention, not acute heart
failure.
A postoperative client reports sudden chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse notes
tachycardia and hypoxia. Which condition should the nurse suspect first?
A) Atelectasis
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Pneumothorax
,D) Wound infection
B) Pulmonary embolism CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, and hypoxia after surgery
suggest pulmonary embolism (PE) from a deep vein thrombus. Atelectasis (A)
typically causes gradual hypoxemia and crackles. Pneumothorax (C) presents with
absent breath sounds. Wound infection (D) would not cause acute respiratory
changes.
A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which
electrocardiogram change should the nurse expect?
A) Flattened T waves
B) Prominent U waves
C) Tall, peaked T waves
D) Prolonged PR interval
C) Tall, peaked T waves CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ >5.5) causes tall, peaked T waves, widened QRS,
and possible cardiac arrest. Flattened T waves (A) and prominent U waves (B)
occur with hypokalemia. Prolonged PR interval (D) is seen in first-degree heart
block, not specifically hyperkalemia.
The nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes about sick-day management.
Which statement indicates correct understanding?
A) “I will stop my insulin until my fever goes away.”
B) “I will check my blood glucose every 4 hours.”
,C) “I will drink sugar-free liquids to avoid hyperglycemia.”
D) “I will only take my metformin if I eat something.”
B) “I will check my blood glucose every 4 hours.” CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: During illness, blood glucose should be checked every 4 hours due to
stress-induced hyperglycemia. Insulin should never be stopped (A); it may be
increased. Sugary liquids are needed if glucose is low (C). Metformin (D) is not
used in type 1 diabetes; sick-day management focuses on insulin.
A client with cirrhosis develops ascites and hepatic encephalopathy. Which dietary
restriction should the nurse anticipate?
A) High-protein diet
B) Low-sodium diet
C) Increased fat intake
D) Fluid restriction to 1 L/day
B) Low-sodium diet CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: Ascites in cirrhosis requires sodium restriction to reduce fluid retention.
Hepatic encephalopathy may require protein restriction (not high-protein, A)
initially. Fat intake (C) is not restricted unless steatorrhea. Fluid restriction (D) is
not first-line; sodium restriction is key.
A client receiving warfarin has an international normalized ratio (INR) of 4.5.
Which action should the nurse take?
A) Administer vitamin K as prescribed
B) Increase the warfarin dose
, C) Continue monitoring as planned
D) Give protamine sulfate
A) Administer vitamin K as prescribed CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: Target INR for most conditions is 2-3. An INR of 4.5 indicates elevated
bleeding risk; vitamin K reverses warfarin. Increasing warfarin (B) would worsen
bleeding. Protamine sulfate (D) reverses heparin, not warfarin.
The nurse is assessing a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A) Ascending weakness from legs to arms
B) Blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg
C) Difficulty speaking and swallowing
D) Mild paresthesia in the feet
C) Difficulty speaking and swallowing CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: Bulbar involvement (speaking/swallowing) indicates impending
respiratory failure and need for airway protection. Ascending weakness (A) is
expected but not as urgent. Mild hypertension (B) and paresthesia (D) are common
in Guillain-Barré.
A client with acute pancreatitis reports severe abdominal pain radiating to the back.
Which position should the nurse encourage to relieve pain?
A) Supine with legs flat
B) Prone with arms at sides
C) Side-lying with knees flexed
QUESTIONS & STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE ACCURATE QUESTIONS
WITH WELL ELABORATED SOLUTIONS AND RATIONALES (100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS) LATEST UPDATED VERSION 2026
EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+ (BRAND NEW!) | JUST
RELEASED|BRAND NEW
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who presents with shortness of
breath, jugular vein distention, and peripheral edema. Which intervention should
the nurse implement first?
A) Administer furosemide as prescribed
B) Place the client in a high-Fowler’s position
C) Restrict daily fluid intake to 1.5 liters
D) Apply sequential compression devices
B) Place the client in a high-Fowler’s position CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: High-Fowler’s position promotes lung expansion and reduces venous
return, easing dyspnea. While furosemide (A) and fluid restriction (C) are
important, positioning is the immediate priority to improve oxygenation.
Sequential compression devices (D) are for DVT prevention, not acute heart
failure.
A postoperative client reports sudden chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse notes
tachycardia and hypoxia. Which condition should the nurse suspect first?
A) Atelectasis
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Pneumothorax
,D) Wound infection
B) Pulmonary embolism CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, and hypoxia after surgery
suggest pulmonary embolism (PE) from a deep vein thrombus. Atelectasis (A)
typically causes gradual hypoxemia and crackles. Pneumothorax (C) presents with
absent breath sounds. Wound infection (D) would not cause acute respiratory
changes.
A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which
electrocardiogram change should the nurse expect?
A) Flattened T waves
B) Prominent U waves
C) Tall, peaked T waves
D) Prolonged PR interval
C) Tall, peaked T waves CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ >5.5) causes tall, peaked T waves, widened QRS,
and possible cardiac arrest. Flattened T waves (A) and prominent U waves (B)
occur with hypokalemia. Prolonged PR interval (D) is seen in first-degree heart
block, not specifically hyperkalemia.
The nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes about sick-day management.
Which statement indicates correct understanding?
A) “I will stop my insulin until my fever goes away.”
B) “I will check my blood glucose every 4 hours.”
,C) “I will drink sugar-free liquids to avoid hyperglycemia.”
D) “I will only take my metformin if I eat something.”
B) “I will check my blood glucose every 4 hours.” CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: During illness, blood glucose should be checked every 4 hours due to
stress-induced hyperglycemia. Insulin should never be stopped (A); it may be
increased. Sugary liquids are needed if glucose is low (C). Metformin (D) is not
used in type 1 diabetes; sick-day management focuses on insulin.
A client with cirrhosis develops ascites and hepatic encephalopathy. Which dietary
restriction should the nurse anticipate?
A) High-protein diet
B) Low-sodium diet
C) Increased fat intake
D) Fluid restriction to 1 L/day
B) Low-sodium diet CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: Ascites in cirrhosis requires sodium restriction to reduce fluid retention.
Hepatic encephalopathy may require protein restriction (not high-protein, A)
initially. Fat intake (C) is not restricted unless steatorrhea. Fluid restriction (D) is
not first-line; sodium restriction is key.
A client receiving warfarin has an international normalized ratio (INR) of 4.5.
Which action should the nurse take?
A) Administer vitamin K as prescribed
B) Increase the warfarin dose
, C) Continue monitoring as planned
D) Give protamine sulfate
A) Administer vitamin K as prescribed CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: Target INR for most conditions is 2-3. An INR of 4.5 indicates elevated
bleeding risk; vitamin K reverses warfarin. Increasing warfarin (B) would worsen
bleeding. Protamine sulfate (D) reverses heparin, not warfarin.
The nurse is assessing a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A) Ascending weakness from legs to arms
B) Blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg
C) Difficulty speaking and swallowing
D) Mild paresthesia in the feet
C) Difficulty speaking and swallowing CORRECT ANSWER
Rationale: Bulbar involvement (speaking/swallowing) indicates impending
respiratory failure and need for airway protection. Ascending weakness (A) is
expected but not as urgent. Mild hypertension (B) and paresthesia (D) are common
in Guillain-Barré.
A client with acute pancreatitis reports severe abdominal pain radiating to the back.
Which position should the nurse encourage to relieve pain?
A) Supine with legs flat
B) Prone with arms at sides
C) Side-lying with knees flexed
