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Georgia Category 24 – Ornamental and Turf Pest
Control Practice Exam QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES JUST RELEASED
Georgia Category 24 – Ornamental and Turf Pest Control Practice Exam, structured as requested. The
exam begins directly with the coverage in summarized point form, followed by 250 MCQs with
rationales in random order.
Exam Coverage (Summarized Point Form)
• Plant health and pest diagnosis
• Turfgrass growth and development
• Ornamental plant physiology
• Identification of weeds, insects, diseases, and mites
• Calibration of application equipment
• Pesticide safety and environmental protection
• Laws and regulations specific to Georgia Category 24
• Integrated Pest Management (IPM) principles
• Selection and use of herbicides, insecticides, fungicides
• Application timing and methods
• Plant injury prevention (phytotoxicity)
• Pollinator protection and drift management
• Recordkeeping and storage
• Wildlife and non-target organism considerations
• Resistance management
• Soil and thatch effects on pest control
• Proper nozzle and carrier volume selection
Questions 1–250 (Random Order, with Rationales)
1. A superintendent notices circular patches of dead turf with white mycelium in the morning dew.
What is the most likely disease?
A) Dollar spot
B) Brown patch
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C) Pythium blight
D) Gray leaf spot
Answer: B – Brown patch (Rhizoctonia) produces irregular circular patches and white mycelium when
humidity is high.
2. Which turfgrass species is most tolerant of triclopyr applications?
A) Bermudagrass
B) Centipedegrass
C) St. Augustinegrass
D) Tall fescue
Answer: D – Tall fescue generally tolerates triclopyr; warm-season grasses are often injured.
3. Preemergence herbicides for crabgrass control should be applied when soil temperature at 2-inch
depth reaches:
A) 40°F
B) 55°F
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C) 70°F
D) 85°F
Answer: B – 55°F for 3–5 days triggers crabgrass germination; preemergence must be down before that.
4. What is the primary mode of action of glyphosate?
A) Inhibition of photosystem II
B) Inhibition of EPSP synthase
C) Inhibition of acetyl-CoA carboxylase
D) Inhibition of microtubule assembly
Answer: B – Glyphosate blocks EPSP synthase, disrupting aromatic amino acid synthesis.
5. A customer reports azalea leaves with stippling and fine webbing. The most likely pest is:
A) Azalea caterpillar
B) Lace bug
C) Spider mite
D) Whitefly
Answer: C – Spider mites cause stippling and produce fine webbing on leaves.
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6. When calibrating a boom sprayer, which factor does NOT affect application rate?
A) Nozzle spacing
B) Ground speed
C) Pump color
D) Pressure
Answer: C – Pump color is irrelevant; spacing, speed, and pressure all affect rate.
7. In Georgia, Category 24 applicators must keep records of restricted use pesticide applications for
how many years?
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 5 years
Answer: C – Georgia requires 3 years of records for RUPs.
8. Large patch (Rhizoctonia solani AG 2-2 LP) primarily attacks which turf?
A) Bermudagrass
Georgia Category 24 – Ornamental and Turf Pest
Control Practice Exam QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES JUST RELEASED
Georgia Category 24 – Ornamental and Turf Pest Control Practice Exam, structured as requested. The
exam begins directly with the coverage in summarized point form, followed by 250 MCQs with
rationales in random order.
Exam Coverage (Summarized Point Form)
• Plant health and pest diagnosis
• Turfgrass growth and development
• Ornamental plant physiology
• Identification of weeds, insects, diseases, and mites
• Calibration of application equipment
• Pesticide safety and environmental protection
• Laws and regulations specific to Georgia Category 24
• Integrated Pest Management (IPM) principles
• Selection and use of herbicides, insecticides, fungicides
• Application timing and methods
• Plant injury prevention (phytotoxicity)
• Pollinator protection and drift management
• Recordkeeping and storage
• Wildlife and non-target organism considerations
• Resistance management
• Soil and thatch effects on pest control
• Proper nozzle and carrier volume selection
Questions 1–250 (Random Order, with Rationales)
1. A superintendent notices circular patches of dead turf with white mycelium in the morning dew.
What is the most likely disease?
A) Dollar spot
B) Brown patch
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C) Pythium blight
D) Gray leaf spot
Answer: B – Brown patch (Rhizoctonia) produces irregular circular patches and white mycelium when
humidity is high.
2. Which turfgrass species is most tolerant of triclopyr applications?
A) Bermudagrass
B) Centipedegrass
C) St. Augustinegrass
D) Tall fescue
Answer: D – Tall fescue generally tolerates triclopyr; warm-season grasses are often injured.
3. Preemergence herbicides for crabgrass control should be applied when soil temperature at 2-inch
depth reaches:
A) 40°F
B) 55°F
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C) 70°F
D) 85°F
Answer: B – 55°F for 3–5 days triggers crabgrass germination; preemergence must be down before that.
4. What is the primary mode of action of glyphosate?
A) Inhibition of photosystem II
B) Inhibition of EPSP synthase
C) Inhibition of acetyl-CoA carboxylase
D) Inhibition of microtubule assembly
Answer: B – Glyphosate blocks EPSP synthase, disrupting aromatic amino acid synthesis.
5. A customer reports azalea leaves with stippling and fine webbing. The most likely pest is:
A) Azalea caterpillar
B) Lace bug
C) Spider mite
D) Whitefly
Answer: C – Spider mites cause stippling and produce fine webbing on leaves.
, Page 4 of 104
6. When calibrating a boom sprayer, which factor does NOT affect application rate?
A) Nozzle spacing
B) Ground speed
C) Pump color
D) Pressure
Answer: C – Pump color is irrelevant; spacing, speed, and pressure all affect rate.
7. In Georgia, Category 24 applicators must keep records of restricted use pesticide applications for
how many years?
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 5 years
Answer: C – Georgia requires 3 years of records for RUPs.
8. Large patch (Rhizoctonia solani AG 2-2 LP) primarily attacks which turf?
A) Bermudagrass
