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NUR 631/NUR631 Final Exam V2 | Advanced Physiology and Pathophysiology Q&A with Rationale | Grand Canyon University

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NUR 631/NUR631 Final Exam V2 | Advanced Physiology and Pathophysiology Q&A with Rationale | Grand Canyon University

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NUR 631/NUR631 Final Exam V2 |
Advanced Physiology and Pathophysiology
Q&A with Rationale | Grand Canyon
University
1. A patient is diagnosed with secondary hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following

conditions is the most likely underlying cause?

A. Pituitary adenoma


B. Thyroid storm


C. Chronic renal failure


D. Adrenal insufficiency


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: Chronic renal failure leads to a decrease in Vitamin D activation and

phosphate retention, which lowers serum calcium levels. In response to low calcium, the

parathyroid glands become hyperactive to compensate. This secondary elevation of PTH is

a classic manifestation of end-stage renal disease.


2. In the pathophysiology of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus, what is the primary cause of insulin

deficiency?

A. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues


B. Increased hepatic glucose production

,C. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells


D. Excessive glucagon secretion by alpha cells


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: Type 1 Diabetes is characterized by an absolute deficiency of insulin

due to the immune system attacking the beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans. This leads to

a complete loss of insulin production, necessitating exogenous insulin therapy. Unlike Type

2, the primary issue is not resistance but cellular destruction.


3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with the development of Tades

de Pointes?

A. Hypomagnesemia


B. Hypernatremia


C. Hypercalcemia


D. Hypochloremia


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Hypomagnesemia is a significant risk factor for Torsades de Pointes,

a specific type of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. Magnesium is essential for

stabilizing the cardiac membrane and regulating potassium channels. When levels are low,

the QT interval prolongs, triggering this potentially fatal arrhythmia.

, 4. A 55-year-old male presents with symptoms of right-sided heart failure. Which of the

following is a characteristic clinical finding?

A. Pulmonary edema


B. Orthopnea


C. Peripheral edema


D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: Right-sided heart failure results in a backup of blood into the

systemic venous circulation. This leads to clinical signs such as jugular venous distention,

hepatomegaly, and peripheral dependent edema. Pulmonary symptoms like orthopnea are

more characteristic of left-sided heart failure.


5. Which compensatory mechanism is activated first in response to a sudden decrease in

blood pressure?

A. Baroreceptor reflex


B. Release of atrial natriuretic peptide


C. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system


D. Increased synthesis of erythropoietin


Correct Answer: A

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