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NUR 631/NUR631 Exam 2 V2 | Advanced Physiology and Pathophysiology Q&A with Rationale | Grand Canyon University

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NUR 631/NUR631 Exam 2 V2 | Advanced Physiology and Pathophysiology Q&A with Rationale | Grand Canyon University

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NUR 631/NUR631 Exam 2 V2 | Advanced
Physiology and Pathophysiology Q&A with
Rationale | Grand Canyon University
1. Which clinical manifestation is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?

A. Peripheral edema


B. Jugular venous distention


C. Orthopnea


D. Hepatomegaly


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: Orthopnea is the difficulty breathing while lying flat and is a hallmark

of pulmonary congestion in left-sided heart failure. When a patient lies down, fluid is

redistributed from the lower extremities to the lungs, increasing preload on an already

failing left ventricle. Other symptoms like peripheral edema and jugular venous distention

are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure.


2. In the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis, what is the first step in the formation of a fatty

streak?

A. Endothelial injury and inflammation


B. Platelet aggregation


C. Smooth muscle cell proliferation

,D. Rupture of fibrous plaque


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: The development of atherosclerosis begins with injury to the

endothelial cells lining the arterial wall. This injury triggers an inflammatory response that

leads to the migration of leukocytes and the accumulation of lipids. Without this initial

endothelial dysfunction, the cascade of plaque formation would not occur.


3. A patient is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which laboratory finding would the nurse

expect to see?

A. Proteinuria greater than 3.5 g/day


B. Gross hematuria


C. Hypolipidemia


D. Elevated serum albumin


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Nephrotic syndrome is defined by massive proteinuria exceeding 3.5

grams per day due to increased glomerular permeability. This loss of protein leads to

hypoalbuminemia and generalized edema as plasma oncotic pressure drops. In contrast,

hematuria is a defining characteristic of nephritic syndrome rather than nephrotic

syndrome.


4. What is the primary mechanism by which Angiotensin II increases blood pressure?

A. Systemic vasoconstriction

, B. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion


C. Promoting vasodilation


D. Increasing urinary sodium excretion


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor that directly increases

systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure. It also stimulates the adrenal cortex to

release aldosterone, which leads to sodium and water retention by the kidneys. These

combined actions significantly elevate circulating blood volume and arterial pressure.


5. A patient with emphysema presents with a ‘barrel chest.’ This physical finding is primarily

due to:

A. Chronic inflammation of the bronchi


B. Pulmonary fibrosis and scarring


C. Fluid accumulation in the pleural space


D. Air trapping and hyperinflation


Correct Answer: D


Expert Explanation: Emphysema involves the destruction of alveolar walls and loss of

elastic recoil, which leads to permanent air trapping. Over time, the lungs remain partially

inflated during expiration, forcing the rib cage to expand and remain in an inspiratory

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