CALIFORNIA CERTIFIED ENGINEERING
GEOLOGIST EXAM
Question 1
Which of the following is the primary objective of an
engineering geologic investigation?
A. To identify mineral resources for extraction
B. To determine groundwater quality only
C. To evaluate geologic conditions that may affect the design,
construction, and performance of a project
D. To map all rock formations in a region
Rationale: Engineering geology focuses on identifying and
evaluating geologic factors that influence the safety, feasibility,
design, construction, and long-term performance of engineering
projects. While mineral resources, groundwater, and mapping
may be components of an investigation, they are not typically
the primary objective.
Question 2
Which soil classification system is most commonly used in
geotechnical engineering practice in the United States?
A. AASHTO Classification System only
B. California Soil Classification System
C. USDA Soil Classification System
D. Unified Soil Classification System (USCS)
Rationale: The Unified Soil Classification System (USCS) is widely
used by geotechnical and engineering geologists to classify soils
based on grain size distribution and plasticity characteristics. It
provides a standardized framework for engineering evaluations.
,Question 3
A fault that has experienced movement during Holocene time is
generally considered:
A. Dormant
B. Inactive
C. Active
D. Extinct
Rationale: California regulations generally consider faults active
if they have shown evidence of displacement during the
Holocene Epoch (approximately the last 11,700 years). Active
faults pose potential seismic hazards that must be evaluated
during site investigations.
Question 4
The angle of repose is best defined as:
A. The angle at which groundwater flows through soil
B. The steepest angle at which unconsolidated material
remains stable without sliding
C. The angle between bedding planes and horizontal
D. The dip of a fault plane
Rationale: The angle of repose represents the maximum stable
slope angle for loose granular material. It is a key concept in
slope stability analysis and varies according to particle
characteristics and moisture conditions.
Question 5
Which geologic hazard is most directly associated with strong
ground shaking in saturated sandy soils?
,A. Rockfall
B. Differential weathering
C. Karst collapse
D. Liquefaction
Rationale: Liquefaction occurs when saturated, loose granular
soils temporarily lose strength during seismic shaking, behaving
like a fluid. This can cause settlement, lateral spreading, and
foundation failures.
Question 6
The dip of a geologic plane is measured:
A. Parallel to strike
B. Along the trend of a fold axis
C. Perpendicular to strike and in the direction of maximum
inclination
D. Relative to magnetic north only
Rationale: Dip is measured perpendicular to strike and indicates
the direction and angle of maximum downward inclination of a
planar feature such as bedding or a fault.
Question 7
Which type of mass movement generally occurs most rapidly?
A. Soil creep
B. Earthflow
C. Slump
D. Rockfall
Rationale: Rockfalls typically occur suddenly and involve
detached rock fragments falling through the air. They can reach
, very high velocities and represent a significant hazard in steep
terrain.
Question 8
The California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA) primarily
requires:
A. Federal review of all geologic reports
B. Evaluation and disclosure of environmental impacts of
proposed projects
C. Mandatory mining permits
D. Building code enforcement inspections
Rationale: CEQA requires public agencies to identify, analyze,
and disclose potential environmental impacts, including
geologic and seismic hazards, before approving projects.
Question 9
Which of the following is an example of a secondary seismic
hazard?
A. Fault rupture
B. Ground shaking
C. Liquefaction
D. Seismic wave propagation
Rationale: Ground shaking and fault rupture are primary effects
of earthquakes. Liquefaction is considered a secondary effect
because it results from earthquake-induced ground shaking.
Question 10
An anticline is:
GEOLOGIST EXAM
Question 1
Which of the following is the primary objective of an
engineering geologic investigation?
A. To identify mineral resources for extraction
B. To determine groundwater quality only
C. To evaluate geologic conditions that may affect the design,
construction, and performance of a project
D. To map all rock formations in a region
Rationale: Engineering geology focuses on identifying and
evaluating geologic factors that influence the safety, feasibility,
design, construction, and long-term performance of engineering
projects. While mineral resources, groundwater, and mapping
may be components of an investigation, they are not typically
the primary objective.
Question 2
Which soil classification system is most commonly used in
geotechnical engineering practice in the United States?
A. AASHTO Classification System only
B. California Soil Classification System
C. USDA Soil Classification System
D. Unified Soil Classification System (USCS)
Rationale: The Unified Soil Classification System (USCS) is widely
used by geotechnical and engineering geologists to classify soils
based on grain size distribution and plasticity characteristics. It
provides a standardized framework for engineering evaluations.
,Question 3
A fault that has experienced movement during Holocene time is
generally considered:
A. Dormant
B. Inactive
C. Active
D. Extinct
Rationale: California regulations generally consider faults active
if they have shown evidence of displacement during the
Holocene Epoch (approximately the last 11,700 years). Active
faults pose potential seismic hazards that must be evaluated
during site investigations.
Question 4
The angle of repose is best defined as:
A. The angle at which groundwater flows through soil
B. The steepest angle at which unconsolidated material
remains stable without sliding
C. The angle between bedding planes and horizontal
D. The dip of a fault plane
Rationale: The angle of repose represents the maximum stable
slope angle for loose granular material. It is a key concept in
slope stability analysis and varies according to particle
characteristics and moisture conditions.
Question 5
Which geologic hazard is most directly associated with strong
ground shaking in saturated sandy soils?
,A. Rockfall
B. Differential weathering
C. Karst collapse
D. Liquefaction
Rationale: Liquefaction occurs when saturated, loose granular
soils temporarily lose strength during seismic shaking, behaving
like a fluid. This can cause settlement, lateral spreading, and
foundation failures.
Question 6
The dip of a geologic plane is measured:
A. Parallel to strike
B. Along the trend of a fold axis
C. Perpendicular to strike and in the direction of maximum
inclination
D. Relative to magnetic north only
Rationale: Dip is measured perpendicular to strike and indicates
the direction and angle of maximum downward inclination of a
planar feature such as bedding or a fault.
Question 7
Which type of mass movement generally occurs most rapidly?
A. Soil creep
B. Earthflow
C. Slump
D. Rockfall
Rationale: Rockfalls typically occur suddenly and involve
detached rock fragments falling through the air. They can reach
, very high velocities and represent a significant hazard in steep
terrain.
Question 8
The California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA) primarily
requires:
A. Federal review of all geologic reports
B. Evaluation and disclosure of environmental impacts of
proposed projects
C. Mandatory mining permits
D. Building code enforcement inspections
Rationale: CEQA requires public agencies to identify, analyze,
and disclose potential environmental impacts, including
geologic and seismic hazards, before approving projects.
Question 9
Which of the following is an example of a secondary seismic
hazard?
A. Fault rupture
B. Ground shaking
C. Liquefaction
D. Seismic wave propagation
Rationale: Ground shaking and fault rupture are primary effects
of earthquakes. Liquefaction is considered a secondary effect
because it results from earthquake-induced ground shaking.
Question 10
An anticline is:
