NSG124 / NSG 124 Exam 3
| Latest Update |Newly Released
Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Graded A+
Guaranteed Pass | 100% Correct - Herzing University
Q1: A nurse is preparing to administer enalapril to a patient with hypertension. Before giving
the medication, the nurse should prioritize assessing which of the following?
A. Serum potassium level
B. Blood pres s ure and heart rate
C. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because ACE inhibitors like enalapril can cause a significant first-dose
hypotensive response, so the nurse must assess blood pressure and heart rate before
administration and withhold the drug if systolic BP is below 90 mmHg. The nurse should also
monitor for a persistent dry cough, which is a common side effect, and check potassium
levels periodically since ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia, but the immediate priority
before giving the first dose is hemodynamic assessment.
Q2: A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on metformin. The nurse should educate the
patient that which of the following is the most serious potential adverse effect of this
medication?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Weight gain
C. Lactic acidos is
D. Gastrointestinal upset
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis, a rare but life-
threatening metabolic complication, particularly in patients with renal impairment,
dehydration, or conditions that predispose to hypoxia. While GI upset is the most common
side effect, lactic acidosis is the most dangerous, and patients must be taught to report
symptoms such as unusual muscle pain, difficulty breathing, dizziness, or extreme fatigue
immediately.
Q3: A 68-year-old patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should
instruct the patient to avoid which of the following foods due to its interaction with warfarin?
A. Oranges and grapefruit
B. Leafy green vegetables s uch as s pinach and kale
C. Dairy products high in calcium
D. Foods high in vitamin K such as broccoli only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because leafy green vegetables are very high in vitamin K, which directly
antagonizes the anticoagulant effect of warfarin by promoting clotting factor synthesis;
sudden increases or decreases in vitamin K intake can destabilize the INR. The patient does
not need to eliminate these foods entirely but should maintain a consistent intake and have
regular INR monitoring to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation.
Q4: A nurse is caring for a patient receiving IV heparin. The patient's aPTT is 95 seconds, and
the therapeutic range is 60–80 seconds. The nurse should anticipate which order?
A. Increase the heparin infusion rate
B. Decreas e the heparin infus ion rate
C. Administer protamine sulfate immediately
D. Continue the current infusion rate and recheck in 2 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because an aPTT of 95 seconds is above the therapeutic range of 60–80
seconds, indicating the patient is over-anticoagulated, and the nurse should anticipate
, decreasing the heparin infusion rate to bring the aPTT back into range. Protamine sulfate is
reserved for severe bleeding or life-threatening over-anticoagulation, not for a mildly
elevated aPTT without active bleeding.
Q5: A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse notes the patient's heart rate
is 52 bpm. The nurse's priority action is to:
A. Administer the digoxin as scheduled and document the heart rate
B. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider
C. Give atropine and then administer the digoxin
D. Increase the digoxin dose to strengthen cardiac contractions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because digoxin slows the heart rate, and a heart rate below 60 bpm is a
contraindication for administration; the nurse must hold the dose and notify the provider
before giving digoxin to prevent severe bradycardia or heart block. Digoxin toxicity is also
more likely at lower heart rates, and the therapeutic window is narrow, requiring careful
monitoring of apical pulse prior to each dose.
Q6: A patient is prescribed albuterol via nebulizer for an acute asthma exacerbation. The
nurse understands the mechanism of action of albuterol is:
A. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase leading to increased cAMP
B. Stimulation of beta -2 adrenergic receptors caus ing bronchodilation
C. Blockade of muscarinic receptors reducing bronchoconstriction
D. Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis reducing airway inflammation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that stimulates beta-2
adrenergic receptors on bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation and bronchodilation;
this provides rapid relief of acute bronchospasm. The nurse should monitor for tachycardia
and tremors as common side effects of beta-2 stimulation, and educate the patient that
albuterol is a rescue medication, not a controller.
| Latest Update |Newly Released
Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Graded A+
Guaranteed Pass | 100% Correct - Herzing University
Q1: A nurse is preparing to administer enalapril to a patient with hypertension. Before giving
the medication, the nurse should prioritize assessing which of the following?
A. Serum potassium level
B. Blood pres s ure and heart rate
C. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because ACE inhibitors like enalapril can cause a significant first-dose
hypotensive response, so the nurse must assess blood pressure and heart rate before
administration and withhold the drug if systolic BP is below 90 mmHg. The nurse should also
monitor for a persistent dry cough, which is a common side effect, and check potassium
levels periodically since ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia, but the immediate priority
before giving the first dose is hemodynamic assessment.
Q2: A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on metformin. The nurse should educate the
patient that which of the following is the most serious potential adverse effect of this
medication?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Weight gain
C. Lactic acidos is
D. Gastrointestinal upset
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis, a rare but life-
threatening metabolic complication, particularly in patients with renal impairment,
dehydration, or conditions that predispose to hypoxia. While GI upset is the most common
side effect, lactic acidosis is the most dangerous, and patients must be taught to report
symptoms such as unusual muscle pain, difficulty breathing, dizziness, or extreme fatigue
immediately.
Q3: A 68-year-old patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should
instruct the patient to avoid which of the following foods due to its interaction with warfarin?
A. Oranges and grapefruit
B. Leafy green vegetables s uch as s pinach and kale
C. Dairy products high in calcium
D. Foods high in vitamin K such as broccoli only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because leafy green vegetables are very high in vitamin K, which directly
antagonizes the anticoagulant effect of warfarin by promoting clotting factor synthesis;
sudden increases or decreases in vitamin K intake can destabilize the INR. The patient does
not need to eliminate these foods entirely but should maintain a consistent intake and have
regular INR monitoring to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation.
Q4: A nurse is caring for a patient receiving IV heparin. The patient's aPTT is 95 seconds, and
the therapeutic range is 60–80 seconds. The nurse should anticipate which order?
A. Increase the heparin infusion rate
B. Decreas e the heparin infus ion rate
C. Administer protamine sulfate immediately
D. Continue the current infusion rate and recheck in 2 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because an aPTT of 95 seconds is above the therapeutic range of 60–80
seconds, indicating the patient is over-anticoagulated, and the nurse should anticipate
, decreasing the heparin infusion rate to bring the aPTT back into range. Protamine sulfate is
reserved for severe bleeding or life-threatening over-anticoagulation, not for a mildly
elevated aPTT without active bleeding.
Q5: A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse notes the patient's heart rate
is 52 bpm. The nurse's priority action is to:
A. Administer the digoxin as scheduled and document the heart rate
B. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider
C. Give atropine and then administer the digoxin
D. Increase the digoxin dose to strengthen cardiac contractions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because digoxin slows the heart rate, and a heart rate below 60 bpm is a
contraindication for administration; the nurse must hold the dose and notify the provider
before giving digoxin to prevent severe bradycardia or heart block. Digoxin toxicity is also
more likely at lower heart rates, and the therapeutic window is narrow, requiring careful
monitoring of apical pulse prior to each dose.
Q6: A patient is prescribed albuterol via nebulizer for an acute asthma exacerbation. The
nurse understands the mechanism of action of albuterol is:
A. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase leading to increased cAMP
B. Stimulation of beta -2 adrenergic receptors caus ing bronchodilation
C. Blockade of muscarinic receptors reducing bronchoconstriction
D. Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis reducing airway inflammation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that stimulates beta-2
adrenergic receptors on bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation and bronchodilation;
this provides rapid relief of acute bronchospasm. The nurse should monitor for tachycardia
and tremors as common side effects of beta-2 stimulation, and educate the patient that
albuterol is a rescue medication, not a controller.
