NUR 631 ADVANCED PHYSIOLOGY AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY MIDTERM AND FINAL EXAM PREP TEST BANK 1 WITH 300 EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS/ GCU NUR 631 LATEST EXAM PREP TEST BANK

NUR 631 ADVANCED PHYSIOLOGY AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY MIDTERM AND FINAL EXAM PREP TEST BANK 1 WITH 300 EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS/ GCU NUR 631 LATEST EXAM PREP TEST BANK 1. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has elevated PaCO₂. Which compensatory response is most expected? A) Increased renal bicarbonate reabsorption B) Respiratory alkalosis C) Decreased renal hydrogen ion secretion D) Increased ventilation rate due to hypoxic drive Correct Answer: A Rationale: Chronic respiratory acidosis leads to metabolic compensation via renal retention of bicarbonate. ________________________________________ 2. Which immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for the early defense against viral respiratory infections? A) IgA B) IgE C) IgG D) IgM Correct Answer: A Rationale: IgA is secreted in mucosal linings, providing first-line defense against inhaled viruses. ________________________________________ 3. A patient with heart failure develops hyponatremia. This is most likely due to: A) Increased atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) B) Inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion C) Aldosterone deficiency D) Osmotic diuresis Correct Answer: B Rationale: In heart failure, reduced effective circulating volume stimulates non-osmotic ADH release, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. ________________________________________ 4. During ischemia, which change in cardiac myocyte metabolism occurs first? A) Increased fatty acid oxidation B) Switch from aerobic to anaerobic glycolysis C) Increased ketone body utilization D) Activation of protein synthesis Correct Answer: B Rationale: Lack of oxygen shifts metabolism to anaerobic glycolysis, producing lactate and decreasing intracellular pH. ________________________________________ 5. A patient has a deficiency in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD). Which clinical finding is most likely after exposure to an oxidizing drug? A) Hemolytic anemia with Heinz bodies B) Megaloblastic anemia C) Thrombocytosis D) Reticulocytopenia Correct Answer: A Rationale: G6PD deficiency impairs the pentose phosphate pathway, leading to oxidative hemolysis and Heinz body formation. ________________________________________ 6. In septic shock, the most common early hemodynamic profile is: A) Low cardiac output, high systemic vascular resistance (SVR) B) High cardiac output, low SVR C) Low cardiac output, low SVR D) High cardiac output, high SVR Correct Answer: B Rationale: Early septic shock is hyperdynamic with increased cardiac output and decreased SVR due to vasodilation from inflammatory mediators. ________________________________________ 7. Which finding is characteristic of primary hyperaldosteronism? A) Hypernatremia with metabolic acidosis B) Hypokalemia with metabolic alkalosis C) Hyperkalemia with metabolic acidosis D) Hyponatremia with metabolic alkalosis Correct Answer: B Rationale: Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption and potassium/hydrogen excretion, causing hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. ________________________________________ 8. A 55-year-old with chronic liver disease presents with asterixis and confusion. The most likely pathophysiological mechanism is: A) Accumulation of ammonia causing astrocyte swelling B) Direct neuronal damage by bilirubin C) Hypoglycemia from impaired gluconeogenesis D) Cerebral edema from hypoalbuminemia Correct Answer: A Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is primarily linked to hyperammonemia, which leads to astrocyte dysfunction and cerebral edema. ________________________________________ 9. Which cytokine is primarily responsible for fever in systemic inflammation? A) Interleukin-10 (IL-10) B) Interleukin-1 beta (IL-1β) C) Transforming growth factor beta (TGF-β) D) Interleukin-4 (IL-4) Correct Answer: B *Rationale: IL-1β acts on the hypothalamus to produce prostaglandin E2, resetting the thermostatic set point.* ________________________________________ 10. In type 2 diabetes, the earliest detectable defect is usually: A) Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues B) Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells C) Absolute deficiency of insulin D) Increased glucagon secretion Correct Answer: A *Rationale: Insulin resistance in muscle, liver, and adipose tissue precedes beta-cell dysfunction in type 2 diabetes.* ________________________________________ 11. A patient with myasthenia gravis is given edrophonium. Which response confirms the diagnosis? A) Prolonged muscle contraction B) Temporary improvement in muscle strength C) Worsening ptosis D) Fasciculations Correct Answer: B Rationale: Edrophonium (short-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) increases acetylcholine availability, transiently improving weakness in myasthenia gravis. ________________________________________ 12. Which laboratory finding is most consistent with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? A) Elevated fibrinogen, normal platelet count B) Low fibrinogen, elevated D-dimer, prolonged PT/PTT C) High antithrombin III, normal D-dimer D) Elevated platelets, shortened PT Correct Answer: B