MDC4 FINAL EXAM (RASMUSSEN) NEWEST 2026/ 2027
TEST BANK| MDC4 FINAL EXAM PREP WITH COMPLETE
500 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+
(MOST RECENT!!)
1. A nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks gestation with
severe preeclampsia receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Respiratory rate 14 breaths/min
B. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
C. Urine output 25 mL in 2 hours
D. Serum magnesium level 6 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C – Urine output 25 mL in 2 hours (normal ≥30
mL/hr).
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is excreted renally. Oliguria (<30
mL/hr) increases risk of magnesium toxicity. Respiratory rate 14
1
,is acceptable (>12), reflexes 2+ are normal, and Mg 6 mg/dL is
therapeutic (4–7 mg/dL in preeclampsia).
2. A newborn is delivered via vacuum extraction due to
prolonged second stage. The nurse notes a fluctuant,
edematous swelling that crosses the suture lines on the scalp.
Which documentation is correct?
A. Cephalohematoma
B. Caput succedaneum
C. Molding
D. Subgaleal hemorrhage
Correct Answer: B – Caput succedaneum
Rationale: Caput succedaneum is edema that crosses suture lines,
common after vacuum/forceps. Cephalohematoma is below
periosteum, does not cross sutures. Subgaleal hemorrhage is rare
and life-threatening.
2
,3. A nurse is assessing a client 6 hours postpartum who had
an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. The fundus is firm at the
umbilicus and deviated to the right. The client reports severe
perineal pain and saturates a pad in 15 minutes. What is the
priority action?
A. Administer oxytocin IV
B. Assess the bladder for distention
C. Perform a sterile vaginal exam
D. Massage the fundus vigorously
Correct Answer: B – Assess the bladder for distention
Rationale: A deviated fundus often indicates a full bladder
displacing the uterus. This prevents contraction and can cause
hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder usually resolves the deviation
and decreases bleeding.
3
, 4. A G3P2 client at 39 weeks is receiving oxytocin for
induction. Contractions are every 2 minutes, lasting 90
seconds, with a resting tone of 25 mmHg. The fetal heart rate
shows late decelerations to 80 bpm. What is the first action?
A. Increase oxytocin to shorten intervals
B. Place the client in left lateral position
C. Administer terbutaline subcutaneously
D. Prepare for emergency cesarean section
Correct Answer: B – Place the client in left lateral position
Rationale: Late decelerations suggest uteroplacental insufficiency.
First-line interventions: reposition (left lateral), stop oxytocin,
increase IV fluids, administer O2. Terbutaline would be second-
line if tachysystole persists after stopping oxytocin.
5. Which fetal heart rate pattern is most reassuring?
A. Variability absent with recurrent late decelerations
4
TEST BANK| MDC4 FINAL EXAM PREP WITH COMPLETE
500 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+
(MOST RECENT!!)
1. A nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks gestation with
severe preeclampsia receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Respiratory rate 14 breaths/min
B. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
C. Urine output 25 mL in 2 hours
D. Serum magnesium level 6 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C – Urine output 25 mL in 2 hours (normal ≥30
mL/hr).
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is excreted renally. Oliguria (<30
mL/hr) increases risk of magnesium toxicity. Respiratory rate 14
1
,is acceptable (>12), reflexes 2+ are normal, and Mg 6 mg/dL is
therapeutic (4–7 mg/dL in preeclampsia).
2. A newborn is delivered via vacuum extraction due to
prolonged second stage. The nurse notes a fluctuant,
edematous swelling that crosses the suture lines on the scalp.
Which documentation is correct?
A. Cephalohematoma
B. Caput succedaneum
C. Molding
D. Subgaleal hemorrhage
Correct Answer: B – Caput succedaneum
Rationale: Caput succedaneum is edema that crosses suture lines,
common after vacuum/forceps. Cephalohematoma is below
periosteum, does not cross sutures. Subgaleal hemorrhage is rare
and life-threatening.
2
,3. A nurse is assessing a client 6 hours postpartum who had
an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. The fundus is firm at the
umbilicus and deviated to the right. The client reports severe
perineal pain and saturates a pad in 15 minutes. What is the
priority action?
A. Administer oxytocin IV
B. Assess the bladder for distention
C. Perform a sterile vaginal exam
D. Massage the fundus vigorously
Correct Answer: B – Assess the bladder for distention
Rationale: A deviated fundus often indicates a full bladder
displacing the uterus. This prevents contraction and can cause
hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder usually resolves the deviation
and decreases bleeding.
3
, 4. A G3P2 client at 39 weeks is receiving oxytocin for
induction. Contractions are every 2 minutes, lasting 90
seconds, with a resting tone of 25 mmHg. The fetal heart rate
shows late decelerations to 80 bpm. What is the first action?
A. Increase oxytocin to shorten intervals
B. Place the client in left lateral position
C. Administer terbutaline subcutaneously
D. Prepare for emergency cesarean section
Correct Answer: B – Place the client in left lateral position
Rationale: Late decelerations suggest uteroplacental insufficiency.
First-line interventions: reposition (left lateral), stop oxytocin,
increase IV fluids, administer O2. Terbutaline would be second-
line if tachysystole persists after stopping oxytocin.
5. Which fetal heart rate pattern is most reassuring?
A. Variability absent with recurrent late decelerations
4
