NBRC TMC/RRT/CRT EXAM NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL
EXAM TEST BANK|COMPLETE 1200 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED
A+|TMC/RRT/CRT NBRC EXAM TEST BANK
2026/2027(MOST RECENT!!)
1. A 68-year-old male with COPD has a SpO₂ of 86% on 2
L/min nasal cannula. ABG on same O₂ shows: pH 7.36, PaCO₂
58 mmHg, PaO₂ 62 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 34 mEq/L. What is the most
appropriate next step?
a) Increase to 4 L/min nasal cannula
b) Intubate and mechanically ventilate
c) Continue current O₂ and recheck ABG in 1 hour
d) Initiate BiPAP with IPAP 14 / EPAP 6
Correct Answer: d
1
,Rationale: The patient has acute-on-chronic hypercapnic
respiratory failure (pH low-normal with elevated PaCO₂ and
HCO₃). Noninvasive ventilation (BiPAP) improves alveolar
ventilation, reduces work of breathing, and avoids intubation.
Increasing O₂ alone may worsen hypercapnia.
2. A patient’s vital capacity (VC) is 1.8 L, inspiratory capacity
(IC) is 0.8 L, and tidal volume (Vt) is 0.5 L. What is the
expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?
a) 0.5 L
b) 0.8 L
c) 1.0 L
d) 1.3 L
Correct Answer: c
2
,Rationale: VC = IC + ERV. Therefore, ERV = VC – IC = 1.8 L –
0.8 L = 1.0 L. Tidal volume is not needed for this calculation.
3. Which of the following ABG values is most consistent with
acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) according to the
Berlin definition?
a) PaO₂/FiO₂ = 350, bilateral infiltrates, PCWP 22 mmHg
b) PaO₂/FiO₂ = 180, bilateral opacities, no left atrial
enlargement
c) PaO₂/FiO₂ = 400, normal chest X-ray, PCWP 12 mmHg
d) PaO₂/FiO₂ = 250, unilateral infiltrates, PCWP 8 mmHg
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: ARDS requires PaO₂/FiO₂ ≤ 300, bilateral opacities
not fully explained by cardiac failure. Option b shows moderate
3
, ARDS (PaO₂/FiO₂ 180) with bilateral findings and no cardiac
cause. PCWP > 18 suggests hydrostatic edema.
4. During a routine ventilator check, the low pressure alarm
sounds. The patient’s SpO₂ is 91% and heart rate is 98 bpm.
What is the most likely cause?
a) Kinked circuit
b) Disconnected circuit
c) Mucus plug in the ETT
d) Patient biting the endotracheal tube
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: Low pressure alarm indicates loss of pressure in the
circuit, most commonly from a disconnection or large leak. Kinked
circuit or mucus plug causes high pressure alarm. Patient biting
causes high pressure alarm.
4
EXAM TEST BANK|COMPLETE 1200 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED
A+|TMC/RRT/CRT NBRC EXAM TEST BANK
2026/2027(MOST RECENT!!)
1. A 68-year-old male with COPD has a SpO₂ of 86% on 2
L/min nasal cannula. ABG on same O₂ shows: pH 7.36, PaCO₂
58 mmHg, PaO₂ 62 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 34 mEq/L. What is the most
appropriate next step?
a) Increase to 4 L/min nasal cannula
b) Intubate and mechanically ventilate
c) Continue current O₂ and recheck ABG in 1 hour
d) Initiate BiPAP with IPAP 14 / EPAP 6
Correct Answer: d
1
,Rationale: The patient has acute-on-chronic hypercapnic
respiratory failure (pH low-normal with elevated PaCO₂ and
HCO₃). Noninvasive ventilation (BiPAP) improves alveolar
ventilation, reduces work of breathing, and avoids intubation.
Increasing O₂ alone may worsen hypercapnia.
2. A patient’s vital capacity (VC) is 1.8 L, inspiratory capacity
(IC) is 0.8 L, and tidal volume (Vt) is 0.5 L. What is the
expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?
a) 0.5 L
b) 0.8 L
c) 1.0 L
d) 1.3 L
Correct Answer: c
2
,Rationale: VC = IC + ERV. Therefore, ERV = VC – IC = 1.8 L –
0.8 L = 1.0 L. Tidal volume is not needed for this calculation.
3. Which of the following ABG values is most consistent with
acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) according to the
Berlin definition?
a) PaO₂/FiO₂ = 350, bilateral infiltrates, PCWP 22 mmHg
b) PaO₂/FiO₂ = 180, bilateral opacities, no left atrial
enlargement
c) PaO₂/FiO₂ = 400, normal chest X-ray, PCWP 12 mmHg
d) PaO₂/FiO₂ = 250, unilateral infiltrates, PCWP 8 mmHg
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: ARDS requires PaO₂/FiO₂ ≤ 300, bilateral opacities
not fully explained by cardiac failure. Option b shows moderate
3
, ARDS (PaO₂/FiO₂ 180) with bilateral findings and no cardiac
cause. PCWP > 18 suggests hydrostatic edema.
4. During a routine ventilator check, the low pressure alarm
sounds. The patient’s SpO₂ is 91% and heart rate is 98 bpm.
What is the most likely cause?
a) Kinked circuit
b) Disconnected circuit
c) Mucus plug in the ETT
d) Patient biting the endotracheal tube
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: Low pressure alarm indicates loss of pressure in the
circuit, most commonly from a disconnection or large leak. Kinked
circuit or mucus plug causes high pressure alarm. Patient biting
causes high pressure alarm.
4
