NSG 552 Exam 1 Psychopharmacology
(2026/2027) PDF | Nursing | Wilkes University
Q1. A nursing student asks the preceptor to explain the
primary difference between pharmacokinetics and
pharmacodynamics. Which response is most accurate?
A. "Pharmacokinetics is the effect of the drug on the body;
pharmacodynamics is what the body does to the drug."
B. "Pharmacokinetics is what the body does to the drug;
pharmacodynamics is the effect of the drug on the body."
C. "Pharmacokinetics involves receptor binding;
pharmacodynamics involves drug absorption."
D. "There is no significant difference between the two
terms."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes what the body
does to the drug (Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism,
Excretion). Pharmacodynamics describes what the drug
1
,does to the body (receptor binding, mechanism of action,
clinical effect).
Q2. A patient with depression asks, "My doctor said my
medication increases serotonin. How does that work?" The
PMHNP correctly explains that after a neurotransmitter is
released into the synapse, it can be taken back into the
presynaptic neuron through a process known as:
A. Upregulation
B. Depolarization
C. Reuptake
D. Catabolism
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reuptake is the process by which
neurotransmitters are transported back into the
presynaptic neuron from the synaptic cleft, terminating
their effect. SSRIs block this specific process to increase
synaptic serotonin levels.
2
,Q3. Which of the following statements best describes the
mechanism of a G-protein coupled (metabotropic)
receptor?
A. It forms an ion channel that opens immediately upon
neurotransmitter binding.
B. It is primarily responsible for fast synaptic transmission,
such as muscle contraction.
C. It activates intracellular second messenger systems,
leading to slower, longer-lasting effects.
D. It is located exclusively in the presynaptic terminal and
regulates vesicle release.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metabotropic receptors activate G-proteins
inside the cell, which trigger second messenger cascades
(e.g., cAMP). This process is slower than ionotropic
receptors but produces longer-lasting and more diverse
effects.
3
, Q4. A patient with bipolar disorder has been taking a
high-dose dopamine agonist for years. The PMHNP
explains that the patient may now require a higher dose
to achieve the same effect due to:
A. Upregulation of dopamine receptors
B. Downregulation of dopamine receptors
C. Increased activity of the CYP450 system
D. Antagonistic effects at the serotonin transporter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chronic exposure to an agonist leads to
downregulation (decreased number and sensitivity) of the
target receptors. The neuron adapts to constant
stimulation by reducing receptor availability, requiring
higher doses to achieve the same clinical effect
(tolerance).
4
(2026/2027) PDF | Nursing | Wilkes University
Q1. A nursing student asks the preceptor to explain the
primary difference between pharmacokinetics and
pharmacodynamics. Which response is most accurate?
A. "Pharmacokinetics is the effect of the drug on the body;
pharmacodynamics is what the body does to the drug."
B. "Pharmacokinetics is what the body does to the drug;
pharmacodynamics is the effect of the drug on the body."
C. "Pharmacokinetics involves receptor binding;
pharmacodynamics involves drug absorption."
D. "There is no significant difference between the two
terms."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes what the body
does to the drug (Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism,
Excretion). Pharmacodynamics describes what the drug
1
,does to the body (receptor binding, mechanism of action,
clinical effect).
Q2. A patient with depression asks, "My doctor said my
medication increases serotonin. How does that work?" The
PMHNP correctly explains that after a neurotransmitter is
released into the synapse, it can be taken back into the
presynaptic neuron through a process known as:
A. Upregulation
B. Depolarization
C. Reuptake
D. Catabolism
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reuptake is the process by which
neurotransmitters are transported back into the
presynaptic neuron from the synaptic cleft, terminating
their effect. SSRIs block this specific process to increase
synaptic serotonin levels.
2
,Q3. Which of the following statements best describes the
mechanism of a G-protein coupled (metabotropic)
receptor?
A. It forms an ion channel that opens immediately upon
neurotransmitter binding.
B. It is primarily responsible for fast synaptic transmission,
such as muscle contraction.
C. It activates intracellular second messenger systems,
leading to slower, longer-lasting effects.
D. It is located exclusively in the presynaptic terminal and
regulates vesicle release.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metabotropic receptors activate G-proteins
inside the cell, which trigger second messenger cascades
(e.g., cAMP). This process is slower than ionotropic
receptors but produces longer-lasting and more diverse
effects.
3
, Q4. A patient with bipolar disorder has been taking a
high-dose dopamine agonist for years. The PMHNP
explains that the patient may now require a higher dose
to achieve the same effect due to:
A. Upregulation of dopamine receptors
B. Downregulation of dopamine receptors
C. Increased activity of the CYP450 system
D. Antagonistic effects at the serotonin transporter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chronic exposure to an agonist leads to
downregulation (decreased number and sensitivity) of the
target receptors. The neuron adapts to constant
stimulation by reducing receptor availability, requiring
higher doses to achieve the same clinical effect
(tolerance).
4
