NSG 3280 Exam 2 Pathophysiology Tested
Questions (2026/2027) PDF | Nursing | Galen
College
1. A patient with chronic hypertension develops left
ventricular hypertrophy. This is an example of:
A) Metaplasia
B) Dysplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Hyperplasia
Answer: C – Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size due to
increased workload. Hypertension increases afterload,
causing cardiac myocyte enlargement. Metaplasia (A)
changes cell type, dysplasia (B) shows abnormal growth,
hyperplasia (D) increases cell number.
2. Which finding is most characteristic of right-sided heart
failure?
1
,A) Pulmonary edema
B) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
C) Jugular venous distention
D) Orthopnea
Answer: C – Jugular venous distention
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic
venous congestion (JVD, hepatomegaly, peripheral
edema). Left-sided failure (A, B, D) causes pulmonary
congestion.
3. An ECG shows a prolonged PR interval (>0.20 sec)
with consistent P waves followed by QRS complexes. This
is:
A) First-degree AV block
B) Second-degree Mobitz I
C) Second-degree Mobitz II
D) Third-degree AV block
Answer: A – First-degree AV block
Rationale: First-degree AV block = prolonged PR interval
2
,without dropped beats. Mobitz I (B) has progressive PR
lengthening then a dropped QRS; Mobitz II (C) has
constant PR with intermittent dropped QRS; third-degree
(D) has no relationship between P waves and QRS
complexes.
I will now provide the remaining 197 questions in the
same complete format. Due to length, I will continue in
sections below.
Section 1: Cardiovascular Pathophysiology (continued)
4. Which laboratory finding confirms an acute myocardial
infarction?
A) Elevated BNP
B) Elevated troponin I
C) Elevated LDL
D) Elevated CRP
Answer: B – Elevated troponin I
3
, Rationale: Troponin I is cardiospecific and rises within 3–6
hours of MI, remaining elevated for 7–10 days. BNP (A)
indicates heart failure. LDL (C) is a lipid risk factor. CRP
(D) is a nonspecific inflammatory marker.
5. A patient with unstable angina has ST-segment
depression on ECG. This indicates:
A) Transmural infarction
B) Subendocardial ischemia
C) Pericarditis
D) Left bundle branch block
Answer: B – Subendocardial ischemia
Rationale: ST depression indicates subendocardial
ischemia (often unstable angina or NSTEMI). ST elevation
(A) suggests transmural infarction. Pericarditis (C) shows
diffuse ST elevation. LBBB (D) causes wide QRS.
6. Which valve is affected in mitral stenosis?
A) Aortic valve
B) Pulmonic valve
4
Questions (2026/2027) PDF | Nursing | Galen
College
1. A patient with chronic hypertension develops left
ventricular hypertrophy. This is an example of:
A) Metaplasia
B) Dysplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Hyperplasia
Answer: C – Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size due to
increased workload. Hypertension increases afterload,
causing cardiac myocyte enlargement. Metaplasia (A)
changes cell type, dysplasia (B) shows abnormal growth,
hyperplasia (D) increases cell number.
2. Which finding is most characteristic of right-sided heart
failure?
1
,A) Pulmonary edema
B) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
C) Jugular venous distention
D) Orthopnea
Answer: C – Jugular venous distention
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic
venous congestion (JVD, hepatomegaly, peripheral
edema). Left-sided failure (A, B, D) causes pulmonary
congestion.
3. An ECG shows a prolonged PR interval (>0.20 sec)
with consistent P waves followed by QRS complexes. This
is:
A) First-degree AV block
B) Second-degree Mobitz I
C) Second-degree Mobitz II
D) Third-degree AV block
Answer: A – First-degree AV block
Rationale: First-degree AV block = prolonged PR interval
2
,without dropped beats. Mobitz I (B) has progressive PR
lengthening then a dropped QRS; Mobitz II (C) has
constant PR with intermittent dropped QRS; third-degree
(D) has no relationship between P waves and QRS
complexes.
I will now provide the remaining 197 questions in the
same complete format. Due to length, I will continue in
sections below.
Section 1: Cardiovascular Pathophysiology (continued)
4. Which laboratory finding confirms an acute myocardial
infarction?
A) Elevated BNP
B) Elevated troponin I
C) Elevated LDL
D) Elevated CRP
Answer: B – Elevated troponin I
3
, Rationale: Troponin I is cardiospecific and rises within 3–6
hours of MI, remaining elevated for 7–10 days. BNP (A)
indicates heart failure. LDL (C) is a lipid risk factor. CRP
(D) is a nonspecific inflammatory marker.
5. A patient with unstable angina has ST-segment
depression on ECG. This indicates:
A) Transmural infarction
B) Subendocardial ischemia
C) Pericarditis
D) Left bundle branch block
Answer: B – Subendocardial ischemia
Rationale: ST depression indicates subendocardial
ischemia (often unstable angina or NSTEMI). ST elevation
(A) suggests transmural infarction. Pericarditis (C) shows
diffuse ST elevation. LBBB (D) causes wide QRS.
6. Which valve is affected in mitral stenosis?
A) Aortic valve
B) Pulmonic valve
4
