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CAHIMS CERTIFICATION EXAM PREP: 300 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS AND RATIONALES

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CAHIMS CERTIFICATION EXAM PREP: 300 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS AND RATIONALES 1. A hospital is implementing a new electronic health record (EHR). Which project management document provides the formal authorization for the project to begin? A) Project management plan B) Scope statement C) Project charter D) Work breakdown structure Correct Answer: C Rationale: The project charter is issued by the sponsor and authorizes the project manager to apply resources and start work. The PM plan is developed after; scope statement details deliverables; WBS breaks down tasks. ________________________________________ 2. Which type of clinical decision support (CDS) alerts a provider about a potential drug–drug interaction at the time of prescribing? A) Retrospective alert B) Interruptive alert C) Passive alert D) Summary alert Correct Answer: B Rationale: Interruptive alerts pop up in real time during order entry to prevent errors. Retrospective alerts occur after the fact; passive alerts are non blocking; summary alerts display aggregated data. ________________________________________ 3. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule generally requires covered entities to obtain patient authorization before disclosing protected health information (PHI) for which purpose? A) Treatment B) Marketing C) Payment D) Healthcare operations Correct Answer: B Rationale: Treatment, payment, and operations (TPO) do not require authorization; marketing, unless for face to face or nominal gifts, generally requires written authorization from the patient. ________________________________________ 4. Which IT service management (ITSM) process involves returning a changed system to its original state after a failed change? A) Change management B) Release management C) Backout plan execution D) Incident closure Correct Answer: C Rationale: A backout plan is part of change management execution; it reverts the system to its prior working configuration if a change fails. Incident closure is unrelated to failed changes. ________________________________________ 5. What is the primary purpose of an information system disaster recovery plan (DRP) in a hospital? A) Ensure patient safety during routine operations B) Restore IT infrastructure and data after a catastrophic event C) Reduce the cost of software licenses D) Replace the EHR with paper records permanently Correct Answer: B Rationale: DRP focuses on restoring technology and data after a disaster (e.g., power outage, cyberattack). Patient safety is broader; paper conversion is a temporary fallback, not the primary purpose. ________________________________________ 6. A healthcare organization is moving from paper to electronic order entry. Which change management principle is most important for reducing clinician resistance? A) Force the new system to go live without training B) Involve physicians and nurses early in system design C) Remove all paper orders immediately D) Focus only on technical testing Correct Answer: B Rationale: Early stakeholder involvement builds ownership and reduces resistance. Forced go live without training increases resistance; removing paper too quickly can be dangerous. ________________________________________ 7. The “Meaningful Use” program (now Promoting Interoperability) primarily aims to: A) Increase reimbursement for all hospital stays B) Encourage adoption and meaningful use of certified EHR technology C) Replace ICD 10 with ICD 11 D) Regulate telehealth across state lines Correct Answer: B Rationale: Meaningful Use (later PI) incentivized EHR adoption with specific objectives (e.g., e prescribing, patient access). It does not replace coding systems or regulate telehealth. ________________________________________ 8. Which system development life cycle (SDLC) phase includes user acceptance testing (UAT)? A) Initiation B) Analysis C) Implementation D) Maintenance Correct Answer: C Rationale: UAT occurs during implementation (or testing phase) before go live to ensure system meets user needs. Initiation/analysis are earlier; maintenance occurs after go live. ________________________________________ 9. A data analytics team wants to measure how many patients with diabetes had an A1c test in the past year. This is an example of a: A) Structural measure B) Process measure C) Outcome measure D) Balancing measure Correct Answer: B Rationale: Process measures track steps in care (e.g., percentage of diabetics getting A1c). Outcome measures look at results (e.g., A1c levels); structural measures assess capacity (e.g., having an EHR). ________________________________________ 10. Which role is typically responsible for bridging the gap between clinical staff and IT developers during an EHR implementation? A) Help desk analyst B) Clinical informaticist C) Revenue cycle manager D) Database administrator Correct Answer: B Rationale: Clinical informaticists understand clinical workflows and IT; they translate clinician needs into technical requirements. The other roles have different primary functions.

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CAHIMS CERTIFICATION
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CAHIMS CERTIFICATION

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CAHIMS CERTIFICATION EXAM PREP: 300 PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES




1. A hospital is implementing a new electronic health record (EHR). Which project
management document provides the formal authorization for the project to
begin?
A) Project management plan
B) Scope statement
C) Project charter
D) Work breakdown structure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The project charter is issued by the sponsor and authorizes the project
manager to apply resources and start work. The PM plan is developed after; scope
statement details deliverables; WBS breaks down tasks.


2. Which type of clinical decision support (CDS) alerts a provider about a potential
drug–drug interaction at the time of prescribing?
A) Retrospective alert
B) Interruptive alert
C) Passive alert
D) Summary alert
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Interruptive alerts pop up in real time during order entry to prevent
errors. Retrospective alerts occur after the fact; passive alerts are non-blocking;
summary alerts display aggregated data.

,3. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule
generally requires covered entities to obtain patient authorization before
disclosing protected health information (PHI) for which purpose?
A) Treatment
B) Marketing
C) Payment
D) Healthcare operations
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Treatment, payment, and operations (TPO) do not require
authorization; marketing, unless for face-to-face or nominal gifts, generally
requires written authorization from the patient.


4. Which IT service management (ITSM) process involves returning a changed
system to its original state after a failed change?
A) Change management
B) Release management
C) Backout plan execution
D) Incident closure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A backout plan is part of change management execution; it reverts the
system to its prior working configuration if a change fails. Incident closure is
unrelated to failed changes.


5. What is the primary purpose of an information system disaster recovery plan
(DRP) in a hospital?
A) Ensure patient safety during routine operations
B) Restore IT infrastructure and data after a catastrophic event
C) Reduce the cost of software licenses
D) Replace the EHR with paper records permanently

,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: DRP focuses on restoring technology and data after a disaster (e.g.,
power outage, cyberattack). Patient safety is broader; paper conversion is a
temporary fallback, not the primary purpose.


6. A healthcare organization is moving from paper to electronic order entry. Which
change management principle is most important for reducing clinician resistance?
A) Force the new system to go live without training
B) Involve physicians and nurses early in system design
C) Remove all paper orders immediately
D) Focus only on technical testing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Early stakeholder involvement builds ownership and reduces resistance.
Forced go-live without training increases resistance; removing paper too quickly
can be dangerous.


7. The “Meaningful Use” program (now Promoting Interoperability) primarily aims
to:
A) Increase reimbursement for all hospital stays
B) Encourage adoption and meaningful use of certified EHR technology
C) Replace ICD-10 with ICD-11
D) Regulate telehealth across state lines
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Meaningful Use (later PI) incentivized EHR adoption with specific
objectives (e.g., e-prescribing, patient access). It does not replace coding systems
or regulate telehealth.


8. Which system development life cycle (SDLC) phase includes user acceptance
testing (UAT)?

, A) Initiation
B) Analysis
C) Implementation
D) Maintenance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: UAT occurs during implementation (or testing phase) before go-live to
ensure system meets user needs. Initiation/analysis are earlier; maintenance
occurs after go-live.


9. A data analytics team wants to measure how many patients with diabetes had
an A1c test in the past year. This is an example of a:
A) Structural measure
B) Process measure
C) Outcome measure
D) Balancing measure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Process measures track steps in care (e.g., percentage of diabetics
getting A1c). Outcome measures look at results (e.g., A1c levels); structural
measures assess capacity (e.g., having an EHR).


10. Which role is typically responsible for bridging the gap between clinical staff
and IT developers during an EHR implementation?
A) Help desk analyst
B) Clinical informaticist
C) Revenue cycle manager
D) Database administrator
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clinical informaticists understand clinical workflows and IT; they
translate clinician needs into technical requirements. The other roles have different
primary functions.

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Institution
CAHIMS CERTIFICATION
Course
CAHIMS CERTIFICATION

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