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1. What is the developmental stage and age range defined as experiencing the world
through senses and actions? - Correct Answer: Piaget's Sensorimotor, Birth to 2
years
2. What is the developmental stage and age range defined as representing things with
words and images? - Correct Answer: Piaget's Preoperational, 2 to 6 years old
3. What is the developmental stage and age range defined as thinking logically about
concrete events and grasping concrete analogies? - Correct Answer: Piaget's
Concrete Operational, 7 to 11 years old
4. What is the developmental stage and age range defined as thinking about hypothetical
scenarios and processing abstract thoughts? - Correct Answer: Piaget's Formal
Operational, 12 to adulthood
5. What age range is Piaget's Formal Operational? - Correct Answer: 12 to adulthood
6. What age range is Piaget's Concrete Operational? - Correct Answer: 7 to 11 years old
7. What age range is Piaget's Preoperational? - Correct Answer: 2 to 6 years old
,8. What age range is Piaget's Sensorimotor? - Correct Answer: Birth to 2 years old
9. Describe independent play - Correct Answer: Common in ages 2-3
10. They are uninterested in or is unaware of what others are doing.
11. They are playing alone and maintains focus on its activity.
12. What stage of play is defined by playing alone and uninterested in or unaware of what
others are doing? - Correct Answer: Independent play
13. Describe Parallel Play - Correct Answer: Children play adjacent to each other, but
don't influence each other's play.
14. They are interested in what other children are playing, but plays alone.
15. Ages 2-3, but can start after 1st birthday
16. What stage of play is defined as interested in another's activity but playing along side
them without influencing or interacting with them? - Correct Answer: Parallel play
17. What differentiates Parallel play vs Associative play? - Correct Answer: Interaction.
There is interaction with associative play, not with Parallel play. In Associative, there is
interest but no coordinated activity.
18. What type of head trauma is typically associated with vacuum deliveries? - Correct
Answer: Subgaleal hemorrhage - ruptured emissary vein caused by fragmentation of the
parietal bone associated with skull fracture. Can extend to the neck and orbits. May have
crepitus, fluid waves and ill-defined borders
19. A quad screen expected result for a child with down syndrome would read? - Correct
Answer: Low levels of AFP
,20. What AFP level would you expect in a child with esophageal atresia? - Correct
Answer: High
21. An 8 month old infant presents with significant head lag, what are you suspicious of? -
Correct Answer: Cerebral Palsy
22. When is an infant expected to double it's birth weight by? - Correct Answer: 5
months?
23. When is an infant expected to triple it's birth weight by? - Correct Answer: 1 year
24. Pregnant Greeks and pregnant woman living in higher elevations should have their
newborns followed for? - Correct Answer: higher risk of hyperbilirubinemia
25. An indirect bili measures conjugated or unconjugated bili? - Correct Answer:
unconjugated
26. An infant presents with elevated total bili, what should you suspect? - Correct
Answer: biliary atresia
27. An infant assessment finds a cephalohematoma on exam, what should you monitor the
child for? - Correct Answer: hyperbilirubinemia
28. Which patient population has highest risk for hyperbilirubinemia? Asians, African
Americans, Greeks? - Correct Answer: Asians and American indians have highest risk.
African americans with G6PD deficiency are at greater risk, as is Greeks and people who
live in higher elevations.
, 29. A pregnant mother positive HIV presents to the hospital in labor, intact membranes at 38
weeks with an unknown viral load. She has had 3 ARV. What is the treatment plan? -
Correct Answer: Patient with a viral load or unknown viral load, despite receiving 3 ARV,
should have a c-section.
30. What recurrent infection is commonly associated with HIV? - Correct Answer: oral
thrush
31. What is the treatment for Chlamydia Trachomatis conjuntivitis? - Correct Answer:
Oral Azithromycin is preferred (20mg/kg/day in 1 dose) for 3 days or 40mg/kg/day in 4
divided doses for 14 days of erythromycin - eye drops do NOT work
32. What is the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the US? - Correct Answer:
Chylamdia Trachomatis
33. What is the treatment for Gonorrheoeae Conjuntivitis? - Correct Answer: IV
antibiotics - ceftriaxone 25-50mg/kg IV or IM in a single dose. Infant must be evaluated
for disseminated disease
34. What is the gold standard for testing of Chlamydia Trachomatis? - Correct Answer:
Culture
35. What medication(s) are associated with increased risk for pyloric stenosis? - Correct
Answer: Erythromycin and Azithromycin
36. A 3-day old neonate presents with conjunctivitis, what are you suspicious of? -
Correct Answer: Gonococcal opthalmia