TITLE: Pharmacology Practice Examination 1 — / — / —— 120 Min
◆
Pharmacology HESI #1
Comprehensive Assessment Examination
ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY
A MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ◆ Complete
Choose the single best answer for each question unless "Select all that apply" is indicated.
1. The nurse reviews a new prescription for phenelzine (Nardil), a MAOI. Which information is most important to
assess?
A. Consumption of any alcohol or tyramine-rich foods
B. Reports of nausea or vomiting
C. Therapeutic serum drug levels
D. Blood pressure and pulse prior to taking each dose
◆ A — Consumption of any alcohol or tyramine-rich foods
RATIONALE: MAOIs inhibit monoamine oxidase, preventing tyramine breakdown. Tyramine-rich foods (aged cheese, cured meats, red
wine) combined with MAOIs can cause hypertensive crisis—a life-threatening emergency. Alcohol also interacts dangerously. This is the
most critical safety assessment.
2. The nurse administers haloperidol 0.5 mg IM PRN for the first time. What side effect should be assessed during
the initial dose?
A. Bradykinesia
B. Dystonia
C. Somatization
D. Akathisia
◆ B — Dystonia
RATIONALE: Acute dystonic reactions (muscle spasms of neck, face, tongue, back) are extrapyramidal symptoms most common with the
first doses of high-potency antipsychotics like haloperidol, especially in young males. Bradykinesia (A) and akathisia (D) develop later.
Dystonia is treated with benztropine or diphenhydramine.
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, 3. Which client health history should the nurse report before administering an OTC decongestant? (Select All That
Apply)
A. Type I diabetes mellitus
B. Closed angle glaucoma
C. Chronic hypertension
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Crohn's disease
◆ B, C — Closed angle glaucoma and chronic hypertension
RATIONALE: Decongestants cause vasoconstriction and can increase intraocular pressure (dangerous in closed-angle glaucoma) and
elevate blood pressure (dangerous in chronic hypertension). Diabetes (A), rheumatoid arthritis (D), and Crohn's (E) are not direct
contraindications to decongestants.
4. A client prescribed ipratropium reports nausea, blurred vision, headaches, and insomnia. Which action should
the nurse implement first?
A. Withhold medication and report symptoms and vital signs to healthcare provider
B. Give PRN antiemetic and evaluate in 30 minutes
C. Reassure client that ipratropium will alleviate symptoms
D. Delay administration until next maintenance dose
◆ A — Withhold medication and report symptoms and vital signs to healthcare provider
RATIONALE: These symptoms suggest anticholinergic toxicity from ipratropium. The medication should be withheld and the provider
notified. Reassurance (C) is inappropriate—these are adverse effects, not therapeutic effects. Delaying (D) without reporting is insufficient.
5. A client with multiple sclerosis has profound weakness, blurry vision, and shooting leg pains. Which
medication is the best course of treatment?
A. High dose methylprednisolone intravenously
B. Baclofen three times a day
C. Broad spectrum antibiotic coverage orally
D. Immunomodulatory drug therapy periodically
◆ A — High dose methylprednisolone intravenously
RATIONALE: This presentation suggests acute MS exacerbation. High-dose IV methylprednisolone is first-line treatment to reduce
inflammation and shorten recovery. Baclofen (B) treats spasticity. Antibiotics (C) are not indicated. Immunomodulators (D) are for long-
term disease modification, not acute exacerbations.
6. The nurse administers 30 mL of lactulose for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates
therapeutic effect?
A. A decrease in blood ammonia levels
B. A softening in the stools
C. An increase in glucose absorption
D. A suppression of gut acidification
◆ A — A decrease in blood ammonia levels
RATIONALE: Lactulose lowers colonic pH, converting ammonia to ammonium which is trapped and excreted. Decreased blood ammonia
confirms therapeutic effect. Stool softening (B) is a secondary effect, not the primary therapeutic outcome.
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