NR 603 WEEK 1 |2025| complete exam test
questions and verified answers HIGH-STAKES
EXIT EXAM: UPDATED QUESTION POOL &
VERIFIED KEYS ACE THE FINAL: COMPLETE 3-
VERSION TEST BANK WITH 100% ACCURACY
1. Essential Tremor
A 52-year-old woman presents with a 1-year history of bilateral hand tremors that worsen with
activity and improve after drinking alcohol. Her mother has similar symptoms.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Alcohol withdrawal
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Essential tremor
D. Huntington’s disease
E. Multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer: C. Essential tremor
Rationale:
Essential tremor is an action tremor that improves with alcohol and often has a familial pattern.
Parkinson’s disease causes a resting tremor, and Huntington’s disease presents with chorea and
early death. Alcohol withdrawal is acute and transient, not chronic.
2. Huntington Disease – Diagnostic Test
A 32-year-old woman presents with involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and speech
difficulty. Family history is unknown due to adoption.
What test best confirms the diagnosis?
A. MRI brain
B. CT brain
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C. AFB smear
D. Genetic testing
E. EEG
Correct Answer: D. Genetic testing
Rationale:
Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant trinucleotide repeat disorder (chromosome 4).
Diagnosis is confirmed by genetic testing, not imaging. MRI/CT may show caudate atrophy but
are not diagnostic.
3. Post-Concussion Syndrome
A 16-year-old boy has headaches, dizziness, and difficulty concentrating 3 weeks after a mild
concussion with normal CT.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Traumatic brain injury
B. Dysthymia
C. Complex partial seizures
D. Post-concussion syndrome
E. Subdural hemorrhage
Correct Answer: D. Post-concussion syndrome
Rationale:
Post-concussion syndrome includes headache, dizziness, cognitive impairment, and fatigue
after head injury with normal imaging. Symptoms persist despite normal neurologic exam.
4. Epidural Hematoma – Next Step
A 22-year-old man becomes comatose after head trauma with fixed dilated pupil.
What is the most appropriate next step?
A. MRI brain
B. Lumbar puncture
C. Burr hole craniotomy
D. CT brain
E. Observation
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Correct Answer: D. CT brain
Rationale:
Epidural hematoma is diagnosed with non-contrast CT scan, which shows biconvex hematoma.
MRI is too slow, and burr hole is treatment, not diagnostic confirmation.
5. Visual Field Defect Localization
A 74-year-old woman has right inferior homonymous quadrantanopsia after a stroke.
Where is the lesion located?
A. Left optic tract
B. Optic chiasm
C. Left optic nerve
D. Left parietal lobe
E. Right optic tract
Correct Answer: D. Left parietal lobe
Rationale:
Inferior homonymous quadrantanopsia (“pie on the floor”) results from damage to superior
optic radiations in the contralateral parietal lobe.
6. Absence Seizures – Treatment
Ethosuximide is primarily used to treat:
A. Febrile seizures
B. Absence seizures
C. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
D. Status epilepticus
E. Simple partial seizures
Correct Answer: B. Absence seizures
Rationale:
Ethosuximide blocks T-type calcium channels in thalamus, making it first-line for absence
seizures only.
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7. Bell’s Palsy
A 33-year-old woman has complete unilateral facial paralysis including forehead involvement.
What is the cause?
A. Stroke
B. Bell’s palsy
C. Tumor
D. Myasthenia gravis
E. Multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer: B. Bell’s palsy
Rationale:
Bell’s palsy causes LMN facial nerve palsy affecting upper + lower face, often linked to HSV-1
reactivation.
8. Angiogram – Berry Aneurysm
A patient with polycystic kidney disease is being evaluated for cerebral aneurysms.
Gold standard test?
A. MRI
B. Angiogram
C. PET scan
D. CT scan
E. EEG
Correct Answer: B. Angiogram
Rationale:
Cerebral angiography is the gold standard for detecting berry aneurysms.
9. Status Epilepticus – Initial Treatment
A patient is unconscious after a seizure lasting >30 minutes.
Best initial treatment?
A. Glucose
B. Lorazepam
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