KAPLAN PHARMACOLOGY
INTEGRATED ACTUAL 2026 WITH 75
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS,
1. A patient is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding requires holding
the dose and notifying the provider?
A) Heart rate 62 bpm
B) Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L
C) Nausea and yellow vision
D) Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nausea and yellow vision are signs of digoxin toxicity. HR <60 (adult)
is also a reason to hold.
2. A nurse is administering furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV push. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium wasting, leading to
hypokalemia.
,3. A patient with type 1 diabetes receives NPH insulin at 7:00 AM. At what
time is this patient most at risk for hypoglycemia?
A) 8:00 AM
B) 11:00 AM
C) 2:00 PM
D) 6:00 PM
Correct answer: B
Rationale: NPH peaks in 4–8 hours; onset at 7 AM gives peak around 11 AM–3
PM.
4. A patient is started on warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction is correct?
A) "Avoid eating leafy green vegetables."
B) "Take ibuprofen for headache."
C) "Get your INR checked as scheduled."
D) "Stop the medication if you see bruising."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: INR monitoring is essential. Consistent vitamin K intake is advised, not
complete avoidance. NSAIDs increase bleeding risk.
5. A patient taking lisinopril (Prinivil) develops a persistent dry cough. What
should the nurse expect?
A) The medication will be continued because the cough is harmless.
B) The provider will switch to an ARB like losartan.
C) The patient will need a bronchodilator.
D) The cough indicates heart failure.
Correct answer: B
,Rationale: Dry cough is a common ACE inhibitor side effect; ARBs are often
substituted.
6. A nurse administers morphine 2 mg IV to a postoperative patient. Fifteen
minutes later, the patient's respiratory rate is 8/min. Which medication
should be available?
A) Flumazenil (Romazicon)
B) Naloxone (Narcan)
C) Epinephrine
D) Atropine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression.
7. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed amiodarone (Cordarone).
Which baseline test is essential?
A) Liver function tests, thyroid function, and chest X-ray
B) Renal function only
C) CBC with differential
D) Serum glucose
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Amiodarone can cause pulmonary, thyroid, and liver toxicity; baseline
studies are required.
, 8. A patient is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which laboratory
value indicates the medication is therapeutic?
A) INR 2.0–3.0
B) aPTT 1.5–2.5 times control
C) Platelets 150,000/mm³
D) PT 12–14 seconds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored by aPTT; warfarin by INR.
9. A patient is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which instruction is most
important regarding administration?
A) "Take on an empty stomach."
B) "Take with meals to reduce GI upset."
C) "Avoid all carbohydrates."
D) "Monitor for weight gain."
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Metformin commonly causes GI distress; taking with meals reduces
nausea and diarrhea.
10. A patient with a sulfa allergy should avoid which medication?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
D) Lisinopril
Correct answer: C
INTEGRATED ACTUAL 2026 WITH 75
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS,
1. A patient is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding requires holding
the dose and notifying the provider?
A) Heart rate 62 bpm
B) Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L
C) Nausea and yellow vision
D) Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nausea and yellow vision are signs of digoxin toxicity. HR <60 (adult)
is also a reason to hold.
2. A nurse is administering furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV push. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium wasting, leading to
hypokalemia.
,3. A patient with type 1 diabetes receives NPH insulin at 7:00 AM. At what
time is this patient most at risk for hypoglycemia?
A) 8:00 AM
B) 11:00 AM
C) 2:00 PM
D) 6:00 PM
Correct answer: B
Rationale: NPH peaks in 4–8 hours; onset at 7 AM gives peak around 11 AM–3
PM.
4. A patient is started on warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction is correct?
A) "Avoid eating leafy green vegetables."
B) "Take ibuprofen for headache."
C) "Get your INR checked as scheduled."
D) "Stop the medication if you see bruising."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: INR monitoring is essential. Consistent vitamin K intake is advised, not
complete avoidance. NSAIDs increase bleeding risk.
5. A patient taking lisinopril (Prinivil) develops a persistent dry cough. What
should the nurse expect?
A) The medication will be continued because the cough is harmless.
B) The provider will switch to an ARB like losartan.
C) The patient will need a bronchodilator.
D) The cough indicates heart failure.
Correct answer: B
,Rationale: Dry cough is a common ACE inhibitor side effect; ARBs are often
substituted.
6. A nurse administers morphine 2 mg IV to a postoperative patient. Fifteen
minutes later, the patient's respiratory rate is 8/min. Which medication
should be available?
A) Flumazenil (Romazicon)
B) Naloxone (Narcan)
C) Epinephrine
D) Atropine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression.
7. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed amiodarone (Cordarone).
Which baseline test is essential?
A) Liver function tests, thyroid function, and chest X-ray
B) Renal function only
C) CBC with differential
D) Serum glucose
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Amiodarone can cause pulmonary, thyroid, and liver toxicity; baseline
studies are required.
, 8. A patient is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which laboratory
value indicates the medication is therapeutic?
A) INR 2.0–3.0
B) aPTT 1.5–2.5 times control
C) Platelets 150,000/mm³
D) PT 12–14 seconds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored by aPTT; warfarin by INR.
9. A patient is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which instruction is most
important regarding administration?
A) "Take on an empty stomach."
B) "Take with meals to reduce GI upset."
C) "Avoid all carbohydrates."
D) "Monitor for weight gain."
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Metformin commonly causes GI distress; taking with meals reduces
nausea and diarrhea.
10. A patient with a sulfa allergy should avoid which medication?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
D) Lisinopril
Correct answer: C