KAPLAN PREDICTOR 2026VERSION D |
COMPLETE 100-QUESTION PRACTICE
EXAM WITH RATIONALESFormat: 4 Answer
Options | Correct Answer Highlighted | Detailed
RationaleBased on NGN Clinical Judgment
Framework
Section 1: Management of Care (Questions 1-15)
Q1. A charge nurse is reviewing incident reports from the previous month.
Which finding should be prioritized for immediate action?
A) Two patient falls without injury
B) One medication error involving a non-controlled substance
C) Three reports of staff not washing hands before patient contact
D) One near-miss where a patient received the wrong blood type
Rationale: A near-miss involving a blood type mismatch has the potential for fatal
harm. According to National Patient Safety Goals, such events require immediate
root cause analysis to prevent actual harm. The other options, while concerning,
are of lower priority .
Q2. A charge nurse is assigning tasks to the healthcare team. Which task
should be delegated to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?
A) Administering a blood transfusion to a stable patient
,B) Performing a comprehensive admission assessment
C) Administering an oral antibiotic to a patient with a gastrostomy tube
D) Developing the plan of care for a patient with diabetes
Rationale: Administering oral medications via gastrostomy tube is within the LPN
scope of practice in many states, provided the patient is stable. Blood transfusions
and comprehensive assessments require RN-level judgment. Developing the plan
of care is an RN responsibility .
Q3. The nurse in the hospital cafeteria overhears two nursing assistive
personnel (NAP) discussing a client's condition. What is the PRIORITY
action for the nurse to take?
A) Change the topic of the conversation
B) Report the employees to their nurse manager
C) Inform the employees about patient confidentiality and the client's right to
privacy
D) Meet with the employees at the end of the shift
Rationale: The nurse should immediately address the confidentiality breach
directly with the NAPs. Patient confidentiality is protected by HIPAA; discussing
client information in public places violates these regulations. The priority is to stop
the breach and educate .
Q4. A nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess
first after receiving shift report?
A) A patient with a history of asthma who is wheezing and using accessory
muscles
,B) A patient with a new colostomy requesting pain medication
C) A patient scheduled for a CT scan who has not signed consent
D) A patient with a UTI and temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient with wheezing and accessory muscle use is in acute
respiratory distress, an immediate threat to airway and breathing. Using the ABC
framework, this patient must be assessed first .
Q5. A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient with a new diagnosis of heart
failure. Which instruction is most important to include in discharge teaching?
A) Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 pounds in a day or 5 pounds in
a week
B) Take your diuretic only when you feel short of breath
C) Limit your fluid intake to 3 liters per day
D) Avoid eating foods high in potassium
Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is the most sensitive indicator of fluid
retention in heart failure. A rapid weight gain of 2 lbs/day or 5 lbs/week signals
worsening heart failure and requires prompt intervention .
Q6. A client who is on the inpatient psychiatric unit has a history of violence.
Which action should a nurse take if the client is agitated?
A) Place the client in seclusion
B) Encourage the client to verbalize feelings
C) Administer PRN haloperidol
D) Call for security assistance
, Rationale: Verbal de-escalation and encouraging expression of feelings are the
least restrictive interventions for agitation. Seclusion and restraints are used only
when de-escalation fails and safety is threatened .
Q7. A nurse manager is reviewing incident reports. Which finding should be
prioritized for immediate action?
A) Two patient falls without injury
B) One medication error involving a non-controlled substance
C) Three reports of staff not washing hands
D) One near-miss where a patient received the wrong blood type
Rationale: A near-miss involving a blood type mismatch has potential for fatal
harm. Such events require immediate root cause analysis to prevent actual harm .
Q8. The male client asks the nurse, "Why am I experiencing erectile
dysfunction (ED)?" The nurse reviews the client's medications. Which
classification increases the risk for ED?
A) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B) Antihypertensive medications
C) Anticoagulant medications
D) Histamine H2 inhibitors
Rationale: Antihypertensive medications, particularly beta-blockers and thiazide
diuretics, are commonly associated with erectile dysfunction as a side effect .
COMPLETE 100-QUESTION PRACTICE
EXAM WITH RATIONALESFormat: 4 Answer
Options | Correct Answer Highlighted | Detailed
RationaleBased on NGN Clinical Judgment
Framework
Section 1: Management of Care (Questions 1-15)
Q1. A charge nurse is reviewing incident reports from the previous month.
Which finding should be prioritized for immediate action?
A) Two patient falls without injury
B) One medication error involving a non-controlled substance
C) Three reports of staff not washing hands before patient contact
D) One near-miss where a patient received the wrong blood type
Rationale: A near-miss involving a blood type mismatch has the potential for fatal
harm. According to National Patient Safety Goals, such events require immediate
root cause analysis to prevent actual harm. The other options, while concerning,
are of lower priority .
Q2. A charge nurse is assigning tasks to the healthcare team. Which task
should be delegated to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?
A) Administering a blood transfusion to a stable patient
,B) Performing a comprehensive admission assessment
C) Administering an oral antibiotic to a patient with a gastrostomy tube
D) Developing the plan of care for a patient with diabetes
Rationale: Administering oral medications via gastrostomy tube is within the LPN
scope of practice in many states, provided the patient is stable. Blood transfusions
and comprehensive assessments require RN-level judgment. Developing the plan
of care is an RN responsibility .
Q3. The nurse in the hospital cafeteria overhears two nursing assistive
personnel (NAP) discussing a client's condition. What is the PRIORITY
action for the nurse to take?
A) Change the topic of the conversation
B) Report the employees to their nurse manager
C) Inform the employees about patient confidentiality and the client's right to
privacy
D) Meet with the employees at the end of the shift
Rationale: The nurse should immediately address the confidentiality breach
directly with the NAPs. Patient confidentiality is protected by HIPAA; discussing
client information in public places violates these regulations. The priority is to stop
the breach and educate .
Q4. A nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess
first after receiving shift report?
A) A patient with a history of asthma who is wheezing and using accessory
muscles
,B) A patient with a new colostomy requesting pain medication
C) A patient scheduled for a CT scan who has not signed consent
D) A patient with a UTI and temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient with wheezing and accessory muscle use is in acute
respiratory distress, an immediate threat to airway and breathing. Using the ABC
framework, this patient must be assessed first .
Q5. A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient with a new diagnosis of heart
failure. Which instruction is most important to include in discharge teaching?
A) Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 pounds in a day or 5 pounds in
a week
B) Take your diuretic only when you feel short of breath
C) Limit your fluid intake to 3 liters per day
D) Avoid eating foods high in potassium
Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is the most sensitive indicator of fluid
retention in heart failure. A rapid weight gain of 2 lbs/day or 5 lbs/week signals
worsening heart failure and requires prompt intervention .
Q6. A client who is on the inpatient psychiatric unit has a history of violence.
Which action should a nurse take if the client is agitated?
A) Place the client in seclusion
B) Encourage the client to verbalize feelings
C) Administer PRN haloperidol
D) Call for security assistance
, Rationale: Verbal de-escalation and encouraging expression of feelings are the
least restrictive interventions for agitation. Seclusion and restraints are used only
when de-escalation fails and safety is threatened .
Q7. A nurse manager is reviewing incident reports. Which finding should be
prioritized for immediate action?
A) Two patient falls without injury
B) One medication error involving a non-controlled substance
C) Three reports of staff not washing hands
D) One near-miss where a patient received the wrong blood type
Rationale: A near-miss involving a blood type mismatch has potential for fatal
harm. Such events require immediate root cause analysis to prevent actual harm .
Q8. The male client asks the nurse, "Why am I experiencing erectile
dysfunction (ED)?" The nurse reviews the client's medications. Which
classification increases the risk for ED?
A) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B) Antihypertensive medications
C) Anticoagulant medications
D) Histamine H2 inhibitors
Rationale: Antihypertensive medications, particularly beta-blockers and thiazide
diuretics, are commonly associated with erectile dysfunction as a side effect .
