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Walden University
PN College of Nursing — HESI PN Exit Exam Preparation
A HIGHER DEGREE OF GOOD
HESI PN
HESI PN Exit Exam Practice Questions and Answers
PRACTICAL NURSE (PN) COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW — NCLEX-PN PREPARATION | 2026/2027
INSTITUTION Walden University — College of Nursing COURSE CODE HESI PN Exit Exam Practice
PROGRAM Practical Nurse (PN) — NCLEX-PN Licensure Preparation ACADEMIC YEAR
EXAM TITLE HESI PN Exit Exam Practice Questions and Answers TOTAL QUESTIONS 50+ Practice Questions with Clinical Rationales
SUBJECT AREAS Med-Surg, Maternity, Peds, Mental Health, Fundamentals, Leadership FORMAT Multiple Choice, SATA, Ordered Response & Terminology
EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
▸ Select the single best answer for each question unless "Select all that apply" is specified.
▸ This comprehensive practice review covers all major NCLEX-PN client needs categories.
▸ Medical-Surgical Nursing, Maternity/Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Fundamentals, and Leadership/Delegation are all testable content areas.
▸ Key terminology definitions, medication calculations, and priority-setting exercises are included.
▸ Correct answers and clinical rationales appear below each question for NCLEX-PN board review purposes.
▸ All content reflects current NCLEX-PN test plan and evidence-based nursing practice standards.
SECTION I — KEY TERMINOLOGY, FUNDAMENTALS & SAFETY Questions 1 – 15
1. What is a Practical Nurse (PN)?
A. A nurse who has completed a master's program and is licensed to provide advanced care
B. A nurse who has completed a practical nursing program and is licensed to provide basic nursing care under supervision
C. An unlicensed assistive personnel who provides direct patient care
D. A registered nurse with specialized certification
CORRECT ANSWER B — A Practical Nurse (PN/LVN) has completed an accredited practical nursing program, passed the NCLEX-PN, and is licensed to provide basic nursing care under the direction of an RN or provider
RATIONALE The PN scope of practice includes: medication administration (oral, topical, IM, subcutaneous), wound care, data collection, reinforcement of teaching, and supervision of UAPs. PNs do NOT perform initial
assessments, develop care plans independently, or administer IV push medications (varies by state). The PN works under the supervision of an RN or healthcare provider.
2. A client has a new prescription for fluticasone furoate nasal spray for allergy symptoms. What action should the client take BEFORE self-administration?
A. Check blood glucose level
B. Gently blow the nose to clear nasal passages
C. Administer a bronchodilator first
D. Perform deep breathing exercises
CORRECT ANSWER B — Gently blow the nose before administration to clear mucus and allow the medication to reach the nasal mucosa
RATIONALE Fluticasone furoate is an intranasal corticosteroid. Proper technique: (1) Gently blow nose. (2) Shake bottle, prime if first use. (3) Tilt head slightly forward. (4) Insert tip into one nostril, close the other. (5)
Spray while gently inhaling. (6) Avoid blowing nose for several minutes after. Blood glucose monitoring (A) is not indicated — systemic absorption is minimal.
3. What is medical asepsis?
A. Complete elimination of all microorganisms including spores
B. The practice of reducing the number of microorganisms to prevent infection ("clean technique")
C. Use of sterile gloves for all patient contact
D. Wearing full PPE for every patient encounter
CORRECT ANSWER B — Medical asepsis ("clean technique") reduces microorganisms; surgical asepsis ("sterile technique") eliminates ALL microorganisms including spores
RATIONALE Medical asepsis includes: hand hygiene, wearing gloves when contacting body fluids, cleaning equipment between patients, and proper disposal of contaminated materials. Holding hands lower than elbows
during handwashing promotes microbe removal (water flows from clean to dirty). Surgical asepsis (A) is required for invasive procedures, wound care, and catheterization.
4. The PN palpates a client's radial pulse and notes that the pulse disappears when light pressure is applied. How should the PN document this finding?
A. Bounding pulse
B. Thready pulse volume
C. Irregular pulse
D. Normal pulse
CORRECT ANSWER B — Thready pulse volume; a weak pulse that disappears with light pressure indicates poor cardiac output or peripheral perfusion
RATIONALE Pulse amplitude grading: 0 = absent, 1+ = thready/weak (disappears with light pressure), 2+ = normal, 3+ = bounding. A thready pulse may indicate: hypovolemia, heart failure, shock, or peripheral arterial
disease. The PN should assess for other signs of decreased perfusion: hypotension, cool skin, decreased urine output, and altered mental status.
5. The PN determines that a client who is one day postpartum has a moderate amount of rubra lochia and the uterus is firm, deviated, and three finger-breadths above the umbilicus. What should be the
first initial action?
A. Massage the uterus to decrease atony
B. Assist the client to void — a full bladder displaces the uterus and can cause deviation
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
D. Increase the oxytocin infusion rate
CORRECT ANSWER B — Assist the client to void; a deviated uterus (displaced laterally) with a firm fundus indicates a DISTENDED BLADDER, not uterine atony
RATIONALE A distended bladder pushes the uterus upward and laterally (deviated). The fundus is FIRM (not boggy), so atony is NOT the problem. Emptying the bladder allows the uterus to return to midline and descend.
If the uterus does not return after voiding, reassess. Fundal massage (A) is for a BOGGY uterus. Oxytocin (D) is not indicated for a firm uterus.
6. A client is admitted with a hemothorax following a motor vehicle collision and a surgeon inserts a chest tube attached to a chest drainage system with suction at 20 cm water pressure. The PN notes the
fluid level is at 15 cm. Which action should be implemented?
A. Document the finding — the suction level is within acceptable range
B. Additional sterile water should be added to the suction chamber to the 20 cm level
C. Clamp the chest tube and notify the provider
D. Reduce the suction to 15 cm to match the fluid level
CORRECT ANSWER B — Add sterile water to the suction chamber to restore the prescribed 20 cm water pressure; evaporation causes the fluid level to drop
RATIONALE The suction control chamber regulates the amount of suction applied. The fluid level drops over time due to evaporation. The PN must maintain the prescribed level (20 cm) by adding sterile water as needed.
NEVER clamp a chest tube (C) unless specifically ordered — risks tension pneumothorax. Documenting (A) without correcting is insufficient. The suction setting should match the order, not the current fluid
level (D).
7. A client receiving statin medication reports the onset of muscle soreness and fatigue. The PN notes that the client's skin is warm to touch. What action is priority?
A. Administer acetaminophen for the muscle soreness
B. Report the findings to the charge nurse — muscle soreness + statin use may indicate rhabdomyolysis
C. Encourage the client to exercise to relieve muscle stiffness
D. Document the findings and continue to monitor
CORRECT ANSWER B — Report to the charge nurse; muscle soreness/fatigue in a statin user may indicate MYOPATHY or RHABDOMYOLYSIS, a potentially life-threatening adverse effect
RATIONALE Statin medications (atorvastatin, simvastatin, rosuvastatin) can cause myopathy ranging from mild muscle pain to rhabdomyolysis (muscle breakdown → myoglobin release → acute kidney injury). The PN
must report muscle symptoms immediately. Lab monitoring: creatine kinase (CK) levels. Other statin adverse effects: hepatotoxicity (elevated LFTs), new-onset diabetes risk. Do NOT encourage exercise (C) —
may worsen muscle damage.