PRITE CLINICAL NEUROLOGY EXAM NEWEST 2026
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| COMPLETE 400 REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) GRADED A+| PRITE CLINICAL
NEUROLOGY REVIEW 2026 (NEW!!)
1. A 60-year-old right-handed male presents with difficulty
getting lost in familiar places, only writing on the right half of
paper, and left-sided hemineglect. Where is the most likely
location of the lesion?
A) Left frontal lobe
B) Right frontal lobe
C) Left parietal lobe
D) Right parietal lobe
Answer: D
1
,Rationale: The right parietal lobe (non-dominant hemisphere) is
responsible for spatial awareness, attention to the contralateral
(left) visual field, and integration of sensory information. Lesions
here cause contralateral hemineglect, where the patient ignores
the left side of their body and environment. Writing only on the
right half of the paper (left-sided neglect) and getting lost
(topographic disorientation) are classic signs .
2. A 66-year-old with hypertension develops acute vertigo,
diplopia, nausea, vomiting, hiccups, left facial numbness,
nystagmus, hoarseness, limb ataxia, staggering gait, and
tendency to fall to the left. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Anterior cerebral artery stroke
B) Lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome
C) Middle cerebral artery stroke
D) Basilar artery stroke
2
,Answer: B
Rationale: This is the classic presentation of lateral medullary
(Wallenberg) syndrome, usually caused by occlusion of the
posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA). Key features include
ipsilateral facial numbness (descending trigeminal tract),
contralateral body numbness (spinothalamic tract),
vertigo/nystagmus (vestibular nuclei), dysphagia/hoarseness
(nucleus ambiguus), hiccups (respiratory center involvement), and
ipsilateral ataxia (inferior cerebellar peduncle) .
3. A 26-year-old with headache and right hand clumsiness for
several weeks. Exam shows difficulty with rapid alternating
movements of the right hand, overt intention tremor on finger-
to-nose, and mild dysmetric finger tapping. CNS is intact
without papilledema. Where is the damage most likely located
on MRI?
3
, A) Right frontal lobe
B) Left frontal lobe
C) Right cerebellum
D) Left cerebellum
Answer: C
Rationale: The cerebellar hemisphere controls ipsilateral
coordination. Right-sided cerebellar lesions cause right-sided
dysmetria, intention tremor, and dysdiadochokinesia (impaired
rapid alternating movements). The absence of papilledema
suggests a mass lesion (e.g., tumor) rather than increased
intracranial pressure .
4. A 78-year-old with an ischemic stroke has residual mild
hemiplegia. The patient appears unaware of weakness on one
side of the body. When asked to raise the weak arm, he raises
the normal arm. He neglects that side of the body when
4
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| COMPLETE 400 REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) GRADED A+| PRITE CLINICAL
NEUROLOGY REVIEW 2026 (NEW!!)
1. A 60-year-old right-handed male presents with difficulty
getting lost in familiar places, only writing on the right half of
paper, and left-sided hemineglect. Where is the most likely
location of the lesion?
A) Left frontal lobe
B) Right frontal lobe
C) Left parietal lobe
D) Right parietal lobe
Answer: D
1
,Rationale: The right parietal lobe (non-dominant hemisphere) is
responsible for spatial awareness, attention to the contralateral
(left) visual field, and integration of sensory information. Lesions
here cause contralateral hemineglect, where the patient ignores
the left side of their body and environment. Writing only on the
right half of the paper (left-sided neglect) and getting lost
(topographic disorientation) are classic signs .
2. A 66-year-old with hypertension develops acute vertigo,
diplopia, nausea, vomiting, hiccups, left facial numbness,
nystagmus, hoarseness, limb ataxia, staggering gait, and
tendency to fall to the left. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Anterior cerebral artery stroke
B) Lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome
C) Middle cerebral artery stroke
D) Basilar artery stroke
2
,Answer: B
Rationale: This is the classic presentation of lateral medullary
(Wallenberg) syndrome, usually caused by occlusion of the
posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA). Key features include
ipsilateral facial numbness (descending trigeminal tract),
contralateral body numbness (spinothalamic tract),
vertigo/nystagmus (vestibular nuclei), dysphagia/hoarseness
(nucleus ambiguus), hiccups (respiratory center involvement), and
ipsilateral ataxia (inferior cerebellar peduncle) .
3. A 26-year-old with headache and right hand clumsiness for
several weeks. Exam shows difficulty with rapid alternating
movements of the right hand, overt intention tremor on finger-
to-nose, and mild dysmetric finger tapping. CNS is intact
without papilledema. Where is the damage most likely located
on MRI?
3
, A) Right frontal lobe
B) Left frontal lobe
C) Right cerebellum
D) Left cerebellum
Answer: C
Rationale: The cerebellar hemisphere controls ipsilateral
coordination. Right-sided cerebellar lesions cause right-sided
dysmetria, intention tremor, and dysdiadochokinesia (impaired
rapid alternating movements). The absence of papilledema
suggests a mass lesion (e.g., tumor) rather than increased
intracranial pressure .
4. A 78-year-old with an ischemic stroke has residual mild
hemiplegia. The patient appears unaware of weakness on one
side of the body. When asked to raise the weak arm, he raises
the normal arm. He neglects that side of the body when
4
