NUR 6001 Exam 3
Advanced Health Assessment
William Paterson University (WPU)
2026/2027 | Newly Released
Verified Q & A with Rationales |100% Guaranteed Pass | Graded A+
Q1: During a neurological assessment, a nurse practitioner elicits a patellar reflex. The response
is exaggerated, very brisk, and followed by sustained rhythmic oscillations of the leg. How
should the nurse practitioner document this finding?
A. 0
B. 1+
C. 3+
D. 4+
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct because a Deep Tendon Reflex (DTR) graded as 4+ indicates hyperreflexia
with the presence of clonus, which is a sustained rhythmic oscillation. A grade of 3+ is brisk but
not oscillatory, while 0 indicates areflexia and 1+ indicates hypoactive reflexes.
Q2: A nurse practitioner performs the Lachman's test on a patient with a knee injury. The nurse
notes excessive anterior translation of the tibia with no distinct firm endpoint ("soft endpoint").
Which structure is most likely injured?
A. Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
B. Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL)
C. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)
D. Lateral Meniscus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the Lachman's test is the gold standard maneuver for assessing the
integrity of the ACL; a "mushy" or absent firm endpoint indicates ligamentous laxity consistent
with a tear. This test is more sensitive than the anterior drawer test, especially for acute injuries.
,Q3: According to current cervical cancer screening guidelines, which of the following
recommendations is most appropriate for a 26-year-old female with no risk factors?
A. Pap smear every year
B. Pap smear alone every 3 years
C. Pap smear and HPV co-testing every 5 years
D. No screening necessary until age 30
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because guidelines recommend starting screening at age 21; for women
aged 21 to 29, cytology (Pap smear) alone is recommended every 3 years. HPV co-testing is not
typically recommended in this age group unless the Pap smear is abnormal.
Q4: A patient presents with a pigmented skin lesion. Upon examination, the nurse practitioner
notes that one half of the lesion does not match the other half, the borders are irregular, and the
color is variegated with shades of brown and black. According to the ABCDE rule, which feature
is most indicative of malignancy due to its dynamic nature?
A. Asymmetry
B. Border
C. Color
D. Evolution
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct because "Evolution" refers to any change in the size, shape, color, or
elevation of a lesion, or the development of new symptoms such as itching or bleeding, and is
considered the most sensitive early sign of melanoma. While Asymmetry, Border, and Color are
critical static features, Evolution captures the dynamic growth of the cancer.
Q5: During a cranial nerve assessment, the nurse practitioner asks the patient to protrude their
tongue. The tongue deviates to the right side upon protrusion. Which cranial nerve is most likely
affected?
A. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B. CN X (Vagus)
C. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
D. CN V (Trigeminal)
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) innervates the intrinsic muscles of
the tongue; a lesion causes the tongue to deviate toward the side of the lesion due to the
unopposed action of the intact contralateral genioglossus muscle.
Q6: A nurse practitioner performs the McMurray's test on a patient reporting knee pain. As the
knee is extended from a fully flexed position while applying varus stress, the patient reports a
painful click over the joint line. This finding is most consistent with a tear of which structure?
A. Medial Meniscus
B. Lateral Meniscus
C. Anterior Cruciate Ligament
D. Posterior Cruciate Ligament
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the McMurray's test assesses for meniscal tears; applying varus
stress and internal rotation during extension specifically traps and tests the lateral meniscus. A
palpable or audible click accompanied by pain is a positive sign for a lateral meniscal tear.
Q7: A 45-year-old male presents with sudden onset of right-sided facial droop. He is unable to
wrinkle his forehead on the right side, close his right eye completely, or smile on that side. He
has no other neurological deficits. Which condition is the most likely cause?
A. Central CVA (Stroke)
B. Bell's Palsy (Peripheral CN VII palsy)
C. Myasthenia Gravis
D. Trigeminal Neuralgia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because Bell's palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion of the facial nerve that
affects the entire ipsilateral face, including the forehead (upper face), due to the unilateral
innervation of the forehead muscles by the contralateral hemisphere. A central CVA (stroke)
would spare the forehead because the forehead receives bilateral cortical innervation.
Advanced Health Assessment
William Paterson University (WPU)
2026/2027 | Newly Released
Verified Q & A with Rationales |100% Guaranteed Pass | Graded A+
Q1: During a neurological assessment, a nurse practitioner elicits a patellar reflex. The response
is exaggerated, very brisk, and followed by sustained rhythmic oscillations of the leg. How
should the nurse practitioner document this finding?
A. 0
B. 1+
C. 3+
D. 4+
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct because a Deep Tendon Reflex (DTR) graded as 4+ indicates hyperreflexia
with the presence of clonus, which is a sustained rhythmic oscillation. A grade of 3+ is brisk but
not oscillatory, while 0 indicates areflexia and 1+ indicates hypoactive reflexes.
Q2: A nurse practitioner performs the Lachman's test on a patient with a knee injury. The nurse
notes excessive anterior translation of the tibia with no distinct firm endpoint ("soft endpoint").
Which structure is most likely injured?
A. Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
B. Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL)
C. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)
D. Lateral Meniscus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the Lachman's test is the gold standard maneuver for assessing the
integrity of the ACL; a "mushy" or absent firm endpoint indicates ligamentous laxity consistent
with a tear. This test is more sensitive than the anterior drawer test, especially for acute injuries.
,Q3: According to current cervical cancer screening guidelines, which of the following
recommendations is most appropriate for a 26-year-old female with no risk factors?
A. Pap smear every year
B. Pap smear alone every 3 years
C. Pap smear and HPV co-testing every 5 years
D. No screening necessary until age 30
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because guidelines recommend starting screening at age 21; for women
aged 21 to 29, cytology (Pap smear) alone is recommended every 3 years. HPV co-testing is not
typically recommended in this age group unless the Pap smear is abnormal.
Q4: A patient presents with a pigmented skin lesion. Upon examination, the nurse practitioner
notes that one half of the lesion does not match the other half, the borders are irregular, and the
color is variegated with shades of brown and black. According to the ABCDE rule, which feature
is most indicative of malignancy due to its dynamic nature?
A. Asymmetry
B. Border
C. Color
D. Evolution
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct because "Evolution" refers to any change in the size, shape, color, or
elevation of a lesion, or the development of new symptoms such as itching or bleeding, and is
considered the most sensitive early sign of melanoma. While Asymmetry, Border, and Color are
critical static features, Evolution captures the dynamic growth of the cancer.
Q5: During a cranial nerve assessment, the nurse practitioner asks the patient to protrude their
tongue. The tongue deviates to the right side upon protrusion. Which cranial nerve is most likely
affected?
A. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B. CN X (Vagus)
C. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
D. CN V (Trigeminal)
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) innervates the intrinsic muscles of
the tongue; a lesion causes the tongue to deviate toward the side of the lesion due to the
unopposed action of the intact contralateral genioglossus muscle.
Q6: A nurse practitioner performs the McMurray's test on a patient reporting knee pain. As the
knee is extended from a fully flexed position while applying varus stress, the patient reports a
painful click over the joint line. This finding is most consistent with a tear of which structure?
A. Medial Meniscus
B. Lateral Meniscus
C. Anterior Cruciate Ligament
D. Posterior Cruciate Ligament
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the McMurray's test assesses for meniscal tears; applying varus
stress and internal rotation during extension specifically traps and tests the lateral meniscus. A
palpable or audible click accompanied by pain is a positive sign for a lateral meniscal tear.
Q7: A 45-year-old male presents with sudden onset of right-sided facial droop. He is unable to
wrinkle his forehead on the right side, close his right eye completely, or smile on that side. He
has no other neurological deficits. Which condition is the most likely cause?
A. Central CVA (Stroke)
B. Bell's Palsy (Peripheral CN VII palsy)
C. Myasthenia Gravis
D. Trigeminal Neuralgia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because Bell's palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion of the facial nerve that
affects the entire ipsilateral face, including the forehead (upper face), due to the unilateral
innervation of the forehead muscles by the contralateral hemisphere. A central CVA (stroke)
would spare the forehead because the forehead receives bilateral cortical innervation.
