NUR 6001 Exam 3
Advanced Health Assessment
William Paterson University (WPU)
2026/2027 | Newly Released
Verified Q & A with Rationales |100% Guaranteed Pass | Graded A+
Q1: During a deep tendon reflex (DTR) assessment, the nurse practitioner elicits no response
from the patellar tendon with reinforcement. According to the 0-4+ grading scale, how is this
finding documented?
A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 0
D. 3+
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because a score of 0 indicates areflexia or no response, which suggests a
lower motor neuron lesion, spinal shock, or peripheral neuropathy affecting the reflex arc.
Q2: A nurse practitioner performs the Lachman's test on a patient with a painful knee following
a sports injury. With the knee flexed to 30 degrees, the nurse practitioner notes excessive
anterior translation of the tibia on the femur with a soft, "mushy" endpoint. Which ligament is
most likely injured?
A. Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
B. Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL)
C. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)
D. Lateral Collateral Ligament (LCL)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the Lachman's test is the gold standard for assessing ACL integrity;
excessive anterior translation and a soft endpoint indicate a tear or rupture of the ACL.
,Q3: A 45-year-old female presents for a skin check. The nurse practitioner observes a pigmented
lesion on her back. According to the ABCDE rule for melanoma screening, which feature refers
to the presence of uneven, ragged, or notched edges?
A. Asymmetry
B. Border
C. Color
D. Diameter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because in the ABCDE mnemonic, "Border" describes the edge
characteristics of the lesion; irregular, notched, or ragged borders are a warning sign of
melanoma compared to the smooth borders of benign lesions.
Q4: A patient presents with sudden onset of facial drooping. Upon examination, the nurse
practitioner notes that the patient is unable to wrinkle the forehead on the right side, cannot
close the right eye tightly, and the right corner of the mouth droops. Which condition is most
consistent with these findings?
A. Right hemisphere CVA (stroke)
B. Left hemisphere CVA (stroke)
C. Right Bell's Palsy
D. Left Bell's Palsy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Bell's Palsy is a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion of Cranial Nerve
VII that affects the entire ipsilateral face, including the forehead (upper face), whereas a CVA
(upper motor neuron lesion) typically spares the forehead due to bilateral cortical innervation.
Q5: A nurse practitioner performs McMurray's test on a patient reporting knee pain and
"locking." During the maneuver, the nurse practitioner hears a palpable click and the patient
reports pain over the joint line. This finding is most indicative of:
A. Anterior Cruciate Ligament tear
B. Meniscal tear
C. Patellar subluxation
D. Osgood-Schlatter disease
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Correct because McMurray's test is specifically designed to assess the menisci; a
click or thud accompanied by pain during flexion and rotation suggests a tear in the medial or
lateral meniscus.
Q6: A 28-year-old female patient presents for a well-woman exam. According to current
guidelines, when should cervical cancer screening with a Pap smear begin for this average-risk
patient?
A. Age 18
B. Age 21
C. Age 25
D. Age 30
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because current guidelines recommend initiating cervical cancer screening
with Pap smears at age 21, regardless of sexual activity history, as the risk of cervical cancer is
low before this age and the immune system often clears HPV spontaneously.
Q7: During a neurological assessment, the nurse practitioner elicits a reflex that is brisker than
average and followed by sustained rhythmic oscillations. This finding is documented as:
A. 2+
B. 3+
C. 4+
D. 1+
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because a 4+ reflex is defined as hyperactive with the presence of clonus
(sustained rhythmic oscillations), indicating an upper motor neuron lesion such as a stroke or
spinal cord injury.
Advanced Health Assessment
William Paterson University (WPU)
2026/2027 | Newly Released
Verified Q & A with Rationales |100% Guaranteed Pass | Graded A+
Q1: During a deep tendon reflex (DTR) assessment, the nurse practitioner elicits no response
from the patellar tendon with reinforcement. According to the 0-4+ grading scale, how is this
finding documented?
A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 0
D. 3+
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because a score of 0 indicates areflexia or no response, which suggests a
lower motor neuron lesion, spinal shock, or peripheral neuropathy affecting the reflex arc.
Q2: A nurse practitioner performs the Lachman's test on a patient with a painful knee following
a sports injury. With the knee flexed to 30 degrees, the nurse practitioner notes excessive
anterior translation of the tibia on the femur with a soft, "mushy" endpoint. Which ligament is
most likely injured?
A. Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
B. Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL)
C. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)
D. Lateral Collateral Ligament (LCL)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the Lachman's test is the gold standard for assessing ACL integrity;
excessive anterior translation and a soft endpoint indicate a tear or rupture of the ACL.
,Q3: A 45-year-old female presents for a skin check. The nurse practitioner observes a pigmented
lesion on her back. According to the ABCDE rule for melanoma screening, which feature refers
to the presence of uneven, ragged, or notched edges?
A. Asymmetry
B. Border
C. Color
D. Diameter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because in the ABCDE mnemonic, "Border" describes the edge
characteristics of the lesion; irregular, notched, or ragged borders are a warning sign of
melanoma compared to the smooth borders of benign lesions.
Q4: A patient presents with sudden onset of facial drooping. Upon examination, the nurse
practitioner notes that the patient is unable to wrinkle the forehead on the right side, cannot
close the right eye tightly, and the right corner of the mouth droops. Which condition is most
consistent with these findings?
A. Right hemisphere CVA (stroke)
B. Left hemisphere CVA (stroke)
C. Right Bell's Palsy
D. Left Bell's Palsy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Bell's Palsy is a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion of Cranial Nerve
VII that affects the entire ipsilateral face, including the forehead (upper face), whereas a CVA
(upper motor neuron lesion) typically spares the forehead due to bilateral cortical innervation.
Q5: A nurse practitioner performs McMurray's test on a patient reporting knee pain and
"locking." During the maneuver, the nurse practitioner hears a palpable click and the patient
reports pain over the joint line. This finding is most indicative of:
A. Anterior Cruciate Ligament tear
B. Meniscal tear
C. Patellar subluxation
D. Osgood-Schlatter disease
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Correct because McMurray's test is specifically designed to assess the menisci; a
click or thud accompanied by pain during flexion and rotation suggests a tear in the medial or
lateral meniscus.
Q6: A 28-year-old female patient presents for a well-woman exam. According to current
guidelines, when should cervical cancer screening with a Pap smear begin for this average-risk
patient?
A. Age 18
B. Age 21
C. Age 25
D. Age 30
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because current guidelines recommend initiating cervical cancer screening
with Pap smears at age 21, regardless of sexual activity history, as the risk of cervical cancer is
low before this age and the immune system often clears HPV spontaneously.
Q7: During a neurological assessment, the nurse practitioner elicits a reflex that is brisker than
average and followed by sustained rhythmic oscillations. This finding is documented as:
A. 2+
B. 3+
C. 4+
D. 1+
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because a 4+ reflex is defined as hyperactive with the presence of clonus
(sustained rhythmic oscillations), indicating an upper motor neuron lesion such as a stroke or
spinal cord injury.
