NUR 100/NUR100 Exam 3 V2 |
Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale | Fortis
College
1. A nurse is administering Lispro insulin to a patient with Type 1 diabetes. At what time
should the nurse ensure the patient’s meal tray is present?
A. 30 to 60 minutes before administration
B. Immediately upon waking up
C. 2 hours after administration
D. Within 15 minutes of administration
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 to 30 minutes.
Administering it too early without food present can lead to severe hypoglycemia. The nurse
must confirm the food is available to match the drug’s rapid peak effect.
2. A patient is prescribed digoxin 0.25 mg daily. Which assessment finding should the nurse
identify as an early sign of digoxin toxicity?
A. Anorexia and nausea
B. Sudden increase in urinary output
C. Hypertension
,D. Tinnitus
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Gastrointestinal symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
are often the earliest signs of digitalis toxicity. If left untreated, these can progress to
neurological and visual disturbances like yellow halos. It is critical for the nurse to monitor
serum digoxin levels and potassium, as hypokalemia increases toxicity risk.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a patient receiving furosemide. Which
electrolyte imbalance is the patient at highest risk for developing?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride
reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased excretion of water and potassium.
Hypokalemia is a common and dangerous side effect that can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias.
Patients are often encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods or take supplements while
on this therapy.
, 4. A patient is starting therapy with an ACE inhibitor for hypertension. What specific side
effect should the nurse instruct the patient to report immediately?
A. A persistent dry cough
B. Increased appetite
C. Yellowing of the skin
D. Excessive hair growth
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: ACE inhibitors often cause a dry, nonproductive cough due to the
accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs. While not life-threatening, it is a leading cause for
discontinuing the medication. If the patient develops angioedema (swelling of the
face/throat), this is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action for Warfarin?
A. Inhibiting the aggregation of platelets
B. Inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
C. Dissolving existing blood clots
D. Directly inhibiting thrombin
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Warfarin works by interfering with the synthesis of Vitamin K-
dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. It is used for long-term prophylaxis of
Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale | Fortis
College
1. A nurse is administering Lispro insulin to a patient with Type 1 diabetes. At what time
should the nurse ensure the patient’s meal tray is present?
A. 30 to 60 minutes before administration
B. Immediately upon waking up
C. 2 hours after administration
D. Within 15 minutes of administration
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 to 30 minutes.
Administering it too early without food present can lead to severe hypoglycemia. The nurse
must confirm the food is available to match the drug’s rapid peak effect.
2. A patient is prescribed digoxin 0.25 mg daily. Which assessment finding should the nurse
identify as an early sign of digoxin toxicity?
A. Anorexia and nausea
B. Sudden increase in urinary output
C. Hypertension
,D. Tinnitus
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Gastrointestinal symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
are often the earliest signs of digitalis toxicity. If left untreated, these can progress to
neurological and visual disturbances like yellow halos. It is critical for the nurse to monitor
serum digoxin levels and potassium, as hypokalemia increases toxicity risk.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a patient receiving furosemide. Which
electrolyte imbalance is the patient at highest risk for developing?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride
reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased excretion of water and potassium.
Hypokalemia is a common and dangerous side effect that can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias.
Patients are often encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods or take supplements while
on this therapy.
, 4. A patient is starting therapy with an ACE inhibitor for hypertension. What specific side
effect should the nurse instruct the patient to report immediately?
A. A persistent dry cough
B. Increased appetite
C. Yellowing of the skin
D. Excessive hair growth
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: ACE inhibitors often cause a dry, nonproductive cough due to the
accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs. While not life-threatening, it is a leading cause for
discontinuing the medication. If the patient develops angioedema (swelling of the
face/throat), this is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action for Warfarin?
A. Inhibiting the aggregation of platelets
B. Inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
C. Dissolving existing blood clots
D. Directly inhibiting thrombin
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Warfarin works by interfering with the synthesis of Vitamin K-
dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. It is used for long-term prophylaxis of
