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NUR 524 EXAM 3 LATEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (100% VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+

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NUR 524 EXAM 3 LATEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (100% VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+

Institution
NUR 524
Course
NUR 524

Content preview

1|Page




NUR 524 EXAM 3 LATEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM WITH
COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (100% VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+

A 14-year-old boy presents with symptoms of fatigue and oliguria with
cola-colored urine, following streptococcal pharyngitis two weeks ago.
Physical examination reveals elevated blood pressure and swelling in
the hands and feet. Urinalysis shows proteinuria and hematuria with
red blood cell casts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Acute glomerulonephritis
Acute pyelonephritis
Acute tubular necrosis
Initial onset of diabetes mellitus ......ANSWER......Acute
glomerulonephritis


Acute glomerulonephritis can occur 1-3 weeks after a streptococcal
infection. The reaction that occurs as a result of streptococcal
infection is the result of an abnormal immunologic response, resulting
in damage to the glomeruli. Symptoms include hematuria, cola-
colored urine, oliguria, hypertension, and edema of the face and
extremities. Urinalysis reveals red blood cells, mild proteinuria, and
red blood cell casts. Pediatric patients usually have depressed C3
complement levels. In adults, elevation of creatinine levels is more
common. Management of postinfectious glomerulonephritis is

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supportive, with water and salt restriction. Calcium channel blockers
or ACE inhibitors may be used in cases of severe hypertension. More
than 90% of children achieve full recovery; complete remission in
adults is 26-56%, depending on age and other comorbidities.


A 23-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a history of
debilitating, unilateral headaches that only occur shortly before her
period and take her several days to recover. Which one of the
following triptans has been found to be effective in preventing these
kinds of headaches?
Almotriptan
Frovatriptan
Rizatriptan
Sumatriptan ......ANSWER......Frovatriptan


Frovatriptan and naratriptan are two long-acting triptans that have
been found to be effective in preventing menstrual migraine if taken
around-the-clock starting two days before menses and continuing for
a total of five to six days. Menstrual migraines are migraine headaches
that occur exclusively near the time of menses. Triptans are drugs
specific to migraine treatment and bind to serotonergic receptors.
They are considered first-line treatment for moderate to severe
migraines or for mild-to-moderate migraine headaches that have
failed other analgesics. Triptans have vasoconstrictive properties so
their use is contraindicated in those with ischemic heart disease,
stroke, uncontrolled hypertension, or basilar migraine



pg. 2

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A 55-year-old woman with restless legs syndrome presents with
worsening leg symptoms described as crawling and fidgeting over the
past 4 weeks. Her symptoms have been interfering with her quality of
sleep. When asked about medications, she reports only taking
pramipexole 0.5 mg (normal dose range: 0.125-0.5 mg) in the
evenings. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in
management?
Discontinue pramipexole and start gabapentin
Offer reassurance and recommend a melatonin supplement at
bedtime
Order a CBC
Refer to neurology ......ANSWER......Order a CBC


Restless legs syndrome is a condition characterized by sensory
disturbances and an irresistible urge to move the legs during periods
of rest. Patients will often report disturbed sleep patterns and daytime
sleepiness. Certain conditions can predispose individuals to
developing the syndrome, such as family history of restless legs
syndrome, Parkinson disease, pregnancy, iron deficiency anemia, or
diabetic peripheral neuropathy


A 42-year-old woman presents to the office with double vision and
eye pain. She reports these symptoms started 4 days ago, and she
experienced a similar episode around 3 months ago. She reports pain
and blurring of vision in her left eye. She has no significant past
medical history and takes no medications. On physical examination,
her vital signs are normal. A focused neurologic examination reveals


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that the patient cannot fully adduct her left eye while at the same
time you notice nystagmus on abduction of the right eye. There is
dysmetria with finger-nose testing in the right arm. What would be
the first test to order on this patient based on the suspected
diagnosis?
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis for oligoclonal bands
Computed tomography of the brain with and without contrast
Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain with and without contrast
Visual evoked potentials ......ANSWER......Magnetic resonance imaging
of the brain with and without contrast


The first test to order in the above patient who is suspected of having
multiple sclerosis (MS) would be a contrast-enhanced MRI of the
brain. She is presenting with what appears to be optic neuritis along
with examination findings of internuclear ophthalmoplegia


A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with difficulty swallowing. He
reports that this symptom started 3 months ago and has progressively
worsened. He describes a feeling of food sticking in his throat after he
eats solid foods, but he has no issue with liquids or soft foods, such as
yogurt. He reports no recent weight loss, anorexia, chest pain, throat
pain, nausea, or vomiting. Which of the following findings in this
patient's history would increase suspicion for the likely cause of this
patient's dysphagia?
Family history of asthma
Personal history of gastroesophageal reflux disease


pg. 4

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