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ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam: REAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS - PASS FIRST ATTEMPT GUARANTEED UPDATED QUESTIONS AND 100% ACCURATE ANSWERS | HIGH-LEVEL EXIT EXAM

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Question 1 A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a newly admitted client who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following conditions is an indication for fetal assessment using electronic fetal monitoring? A. Oligohydramnios B. Hyperemesis gravidarum C. Leukorrhea D. Periodic tingling of the fingers Correct Answer: A Rationale: Oligohydramnios (a deficiency of amniotic fluid) reduces the protective cushioning around the umbilical cord, significantly increasing the risk of cord compression and uteroplacental insufficiency. This requires close monitoring via electronic fetal evaluation (such as a Non-Stress Test or Biophysical Profile). Other indications for formal electronic fetal tracking include gestational hypertension, diabetes mellitus, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), chronic renal disease, and decreased fetal movement. Hyperemesis, leukorrhea, and mild finger tingling (often related to transient carpal tunnel syndrome from fluid retention) are not independent indications for continuous electronic monitoring. Question 2 A nurse is teaching a client who is at 24 weeks of gestation regarding a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "You will need to drink the glucose solution 2 hours prior to the test." B. "Limit your carbohydrate intake for 3 days prior to the test." C. "A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result." D. "You will need to fast for 12 hours prior to the test." Correct Answer: C Rationale: The 1-hour glucose tolerance test is a standard universal screening tool for gestational diabetes. A blood glucose reading between 130 and 140 mg/dL is considered a positive or elevated screening result. A positive result does not definitively diagnose diabetes, but it dictates that the client must undergo a diagnostic 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test. Fasting is not required for this initial 1-hour screening, carbohydrate restriction prior to the test is contraindicated, and the blood draw occurs exactly 1 hour after consuming the glucose drink. Question 3 A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth vaginally 12 hours ago and palpates her uterus displaced to the right and located above the umbilicus. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform? A. Reassess the client in 2 hours. B. Administer simethicone. C. Assist the client to empty her bladder. D. Instruct the client to lie on her right side. Correct Answer: C Rationale: A postpartum fundus that is elevated above the umbilicus and displaced laterally to the right is a classic clinical indicator of a distended bladder. A full bladder physically pushes the uterus out of its normal midline position and prevents the uterine muscles from contracting efficiently. This can lead to uterine atony and severe postpartum hemorrhage. Assisting the patient to void immediately resolves this displacement.

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Institution
Maternal Newborn
Course
Maternal newborn

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ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam 2026:
OFFICIAL STUDY RESOURCE: FULL TEST
BANK WITH RATIONALES 2026
COMPLETE EXAM SOLUTION - MULTIPLE
VERSIONS INCLUDED
Question 1

An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the shift. Which of
the following assignments should the LPN question?

A. Assisting a client who is 24 hr postop to use an incentive spirometer.

B. Collecting a clean-catch urine specimen from a client who was admitted on the previous
shift.

C. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia.

D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: LPNs can assist with routine, stable care and procedures such as incentive
spirometry, specimen collection, and suctioning. However, managing, programming, or
changing tubing and cartridges on a PCA pump involves high-alert narcotic medications
requiring advanced assessment, verification, and titration skills that fall strictly under the RN’s
scope of practice.

Question 2

A nurse is preparing an in-service program about delegation. Which of the following elements
should she identify when presenting the 5 rights of delegation? (Select all that apply) A. Right
client

B. Right supervision/evaluation

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C. Right direction/communication

D. Right time

E. Right circumstances

Correct Answers: B, C, and E

Rationale: The five rights of delegation are: Right Task, Right Circumstances, Right Person,
Right Direction/Communication, and Right Supervision/Evaluation. While "Right Client" and
"Right Time" are essential components of the Rights of Medication Administration, they are not
part of the standard nursing delegation framework.

Question 3

A nurse manager of a med-surg unit is assigning care responsibilities for the oncoming shift. A
client is waiting for transfer back to the unit from the PACU following thoracic surgery. To which
staff member should the nurse assign this client?

A. Charge nurse

B. Registered Nurse (RN)

C. Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN/LVN)

D. Assistive Personnel (AP)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A client returning immediately from the PACU after major thoracic surgery is
considered unstable and requires continuous, complex physical assessment, intensive vital sign
monitoring, and potential emergency interventions. These tasks require the specialized clinical
judgment and advanced scope of practice of an RN.

Question 4

What is defined as the study of conduct and character?

A. Morals

B. Ethics

C. Autonomy

D. Fidelity

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Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Ethics is the formal branch of philosophy that examines human conduct, character,
and the moral principles or values that govern individual and group behaviors and decisions.

Question 5

What are the values and beliefs that guide behavior and decision-making?

A. Morals

B. Ethics

C. Laws

D. Statutes

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Morals refer to an individual’s internal or culturally ingrained principles of right and
wrong that guide personal conduct, often heavily shaped by religious, familial, and social
beliefs.

Question 6

What is the ethical principle that represents the right to make one’s own personal decisions,
even though those decisions might not be in the person's best interest?

A. Beneficence

B. Non-maleficence

C. Autonomy

D. Justice

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Autonomy recognizes an individual’s right to self-determination. In healthcare, this
means a competent patient has the legal and ethical right to accept or refuse medical
treatments based on their own values, even if the medical team disagrees with their choice.

Question 7

Which ethical principle describes taking positive actions to actively help others?

A. Justice

B. Beneficence

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C. Fidelity

D. Autonomy

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Beneficence is the duty to do good, act in the best interest of the patient, and
implement positive interventions that promote the health, well-being, and welfare of others.

Question 8

Which ethical principle refers to an agreement or professional obligation to keep promises?

A. Veracity

B. Justice

C. Fidelity

D. Autonomy

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Fidelity requires nurses to fulfill their professional commitments, keep explicit and
implicit promises, maintain confidentiality, and uphold trust within professional relationships.

Question 9

Which ethical principle describes fairness in healthcare delivery and the equitable distribution
of resources?

A. Non-maleficence

B. Justice

C. Beneficence

D. Fidelity

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Justice mandates providing fair, unbiased, and equitable care to all patients, ensuring
equal access to healthcare resources regardless of socioeconomic status, race, or background.

Question 10

Which ethical principle demands the avoidance of causing harm or injury to a patient?

A. Autonomy

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Institution
Maternal newborn
Course
Maternal newborn

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