COUN 502 - FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WELL ANSWERED LATEST UPDATE 2026

COUN 502 - FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WELL ANSWERED LATEST UPDATE 2026 The Community Mental Health Centers Act of 1963: - Answers mandated the development of a nationwide network of community-based mental health clinics in every community around the country These clinics were required to provide five essential services: - Answers − Inpatient counseling (short-term) − Outpatient counseling − Emergency services − Crisis stabilization − Consultation/education These essential services gave rise to what is referred to as - Answers the continuum of mental health care How is homelessness defined? - Answers persons who lack community ties and resources Least Restrictive Treatment Principle - Answers Interventions delivered in ways that places the minimum restrictions on the client necessary in order to facilitate effective treatment; in general, treatments that give clients the most freedom are least expensive to society. Identification of specific mental health needs and interventions for the homeless is hampered by several factors: - Answers − How is homelessness defined? − Is abuse of substances considered a mental illness? − The homeless population can overlap with other populations − Transient group Homelessness and Mental Health barriers: - Answers - Counselors mistakenly believe it is too difficult to help - Difficulty connecting them to services Place/Train psychiatric recovery model - Answers assumes these clients have difficulty managing independent living arrangements and that their clinical needs are best met when they live in group transitional housing. In this approach, professional mental health and substance abuse services are provided on-site; placement in independent housing comes first and can be later augmented with an appropriate level of professional and peer support; continuation and advancement into less restrictive housing arrangements is contingent upon psychiatric assessments and treatment status Assertive Community Treatment (ACT) - Answers ACT takes a multidisciplinary team approach, often directed by a psychiatrist; common characteristics of ACT include low client-staff ratios (often as low as 15:1), caseloads shared among the team members, 24-hour availability, and community-based (rather than office-based) contact. Center for the Homeless (CFH) of South Bend, Indiana: - Answers is a model program that provides shelter, food, and comprehensive life-building services for as many as 200 guests each day; their mission is to provide step-by-step activities assisting participants to move to and sustain self-sufficiency; the program utilizes a continuum-of-care model of integrated services ranging from crisis treatment and assessment to education, job training, supportive housing, and home ownership. Persons with severe and persistent mental illness experience a two-edged sword that has: - Answers 1) profound consequences for one's personal functioning and 2) oppressive concurrent social repercussions as friends, families, and communities respond to the person's problems Comorbidity is: - Answers The presence of both substance-related and psychiatric conditions in clients, two conditions existing concurrently The diagnostic process for Co-Occurring Mental Illness and Substance Use Disorders: - Answers A. Diagnosis of a substance use disorder and co-occurring mental illness is established more by history than current presenting symptoms B. Always document prior diagnoses and gather information C. Gather information when symptoms of substance use disorder D. Identify client stage of change for each disorder Treatment for Co-Occurring Mental Illness and Substance Use Disorders: - Answers − Inpatient dual-diagnosis programs in psychiatric hospitals − Modified 12-step program − Cognitive framework approach − Integrated dual disorders treatment (IDDT) The Integrated Dual Disorders Treatment (IDDT) model is: - Answers registered by SAMHSA (Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration) as an evidence-based approach; this approach involves the cross-training of practitioners in the provision of integrated, comprehensive services that address both disorders concurrently in one treatment setting; the goal is recovery from both conditions. Hiday and Burns (2010) identify five categories of persons with mental illness who come into contact with the criminal justice system: - Answers 1) the first category consists of persons with mental illness who are arrested for nuisance behaviors, for which non-mentally ill persons typically would not be arrested; common offenses of this group include loitering or trespassing 2) the second group includes those who are arrested for what might be described as survival behaviors, such as shoplifting or not paying restaurant bills; these first two groups commit only misdemeanor offenses 3) persons included in the third group come to the attention of the justice system as a result of substance abuse or dependence; they are often arrested for creating a disturbance, public intoxication, assault, prostitution, or some form of stealing for the purpose of obtaining drugs 4) the fourth group consists of persons with severe mental illness who are psychopathic or diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder and have high rates of substance abuse; their aggressive behaviors disqualify them from receiving much-needed community services; their criminal record is due more to characterological problems than to their mental illness 5) The fifth group is the smallest of the five and consists of the severely mentally ill who are the "stereotyped raging madman out of control"; these persons are driven by psychotic symptomatology to commit criminally violent acts. Although fewest in number, these persons receive extensive media attention Prebooking diversion programs: - Answers intervene for individuals with mental illness who break the law but whose behavior is deemed nonviolent and related to an existing psychiatric condition; they receive 40 hours of training in psychopathology, deescalation management, and the diverting of persons to a special mental health agency rather than taking them to jail for booking In contrast, postbooking diversion programs: - Answers are more common and are implemented after formal charges have been filed; the person agrees to participate or continue in mental health treatment in lieu of prosecution; often, charges are reduced or dismissed Reentry Programs are: - Answers plans developed to help with tranisition from jail to the community Generally, individuals encountering disasters tend to move through three overlapping phases: - Answers 1) Impact — Right after the disaster, most persons experience shock and confusion and display indicators of an activated sympathetic nervous system. 2) Recoil — After the initial impact of the event comes persons' realization that they are survivors, and there is a temporary suspension of the initial stressors. 3) Posttrauma — At this point, survivors become fully aware of the consequences of the disaster: loss of loved ones, homes, and property and of financial insecurity. Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD): - Answers - Designed to mitigate the psychological impact of a traumatic event, prevent future posttraumatic disorders, and serve as an early screening to identify those who might benefit from follow-up professional mental health services - 7 stages Psychological First Aid: - Answers - is an evidence-informed practice that aims to reduce initial posttrauma distress and to facilitate the short- and long-term adaptive functioning of trauma survivors - 8 stages Trauma-Informed Care: - Answers - Strength based approach - Grounded on understanding of trauma and its impact - Goal: Facilitate resilience and restore sense of intrinsic control and empowerment Trauma can be defined as: - Answers "single events, multiple events, or a set of circumstances that are experienced as threatening, physically and emotionally harmful, with enduring impact on physical, psychological, social, or spiritual well-being" Emergency Management Systems: - Answers - Disaster response should fit within larger, community-based emergency management plan - Development plan begins with hazard vulnerability analysis The Private Practice Work Setting: - Answers - Offers autonomy - Self-care is essential - There are number of drawbacks: 1) Difficult to find relevant and required continuing-education hours 2) Operating costs are extensive Substance Use Treatment Programs: - Answers - At risk for burnout - Clients often resistant treatment - High attrition and relapse rates Equine Therapy: - Answers - The horse becomes a tool for emotional growth - Wellness oriented - Addresses underlying symptoms of pathology Integrated Behavioral Health in Primary Health Care Settings: - Answers - Fast paced - Diagnosis assessment - Administrate tests, such as Beck Depression Inventory II - Have the ability to create training programs - Work along side other physicians - Create individualized treatment plans for each patient - Treat individuals and or families - Work with a variety of patients, all of whom may have different issues such as: Depression, Behavioral issues, Cognitive complications, Addiction, and Panic disorders 5 A's framework: - Answers 1) Asked 2) Advised 3) Assessed 4) Assisted 5) Arranged Community Mental Health Centers Act of 1963: - Answers developed a nationwide network of community-based mental health centers; required to provide five services: −Inpatient counseling (short-term) −Outpatient counseling −Emergency services −Crisis stabilization −Consultation/education In 1883, who became the first nation to legislate national health insurance? - Answers Germany Until the late 1970s, the delivery of health care in the United States was guided by two underlying assumptions: - Answers "The doctor knows best" and "We must spend whatever is necessary." Updiagnosing: - Answers occurs when the mental health practitioner gives a reimbursable diagnosis to a client who does not fully meet the DSM criteria as a "favor" so that the 3rd-party reimbursement will pay instead of the client Vessy and Howard's Study: - Answers - 50% of persons in psychotherapy over diagnosed - Up-diagnosing - Managed care placing limits on the amount and types of services rendered by providers Managed Care: - Answers a range of programs and policies that control access to care, the types of care delivered, and the cost of care Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs): - Answers are the most common form of managed care system; the HMO may provide direct services or negotiate contracts with independent practitioners or group practices to provide direct services to consumers; HMOs typically have lower premiums and out-of-pocket expenses and no deductibles and are less comprehensive than other types of managed care systems Preferred Provider Organizations (PPOs) are: - Answers "networks of providers that collectively provide comprehensive health care coverage or an array of specialty care, such as mental health or substance abuse" Service Plans (POS): - Answers allows for consumers to choose provider while a professional controls utilization of services. It promotes the use of providers within the network, but "out-of-network" providers still an option Pretreatment Authorization of Treatment: - Answers - Ensures that any treatment initiated has been determined to be medically necessary and appropriate - MCO assists in assessing clients' needs - HMO actually authorizes treatment, not mental health counselor - Counselors must show scientific basis for treatment approach Total health care costs may be calculated from the following formula: - Answers total costs=utilization×cost per unit Managed care, then, is a general term used to: - Answers describe a constellation of businesses, organizations, and practices that arrange for the financing and delivery of mental health services; the term managed care is commonly used to refer to a range of programs and policies that control access to care, the types of care delivered, and the cost of care Concurrent Utilization Reviews: - Answers answer the primary question "To what extent is it necessary for the client to continue in treatment beyond the original limits authorized?" - Counselor must meet with reviewer to justify continuation of treatment - Threatens the collaborative role of the counselor-client relationship - Helps save money by reducing length and frequency of hospitalizations and outpatient treatment - May have led to improved efficiency and effectiveness of treatment Incentives for Efficient Providers: - Answers - Gaining a position on a providers list - Following acceptable diagnosis and treatment procedures result in referrals by MCOs - Brief and goal-oriented practice - Increased Employee and User/Client Cost Sharing Capitation: - Answers - Counselors contract with the M C O - Counselor's income based on number of persons enrolled in plan, not by services - Predictable costs for M C Os - Practitioners guaranteed steady income - More clients results in decreased income Less Expensive But Equally Effective Treatment Approaches: - Answers - Prefer to hire Master's level providers - Mediation over talking therapies when no difference in result on outcome Retrospective Claims Reviews: - Answers - An independent reviewer audits the clinical chart after termination - Used when insurance fraud or abuse is suspected Innovations of Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act include: - Answers - Requires coverage of psychiatric and behavioral health - Team based approach - Empirical evidence is suggesting that collaborative care models reduce health care costs while improving patient functioning - Primary Care Medical Homes (PCMHs) - Accountable Care Organizations (ACOs) - Bundled payment models - reimbursement for "episodes of care" The Association for Assessment in Counseling and Education: - Answers for counselors interested in activities that require use of measurement; was chartered as the seventh division of the ACA in 1965 Standards for Psychological and Educational Testing address three audiences: - Answers - Test developers - Test users - Test takers During World War I, the army hired a group of psychologists to: - Answers construct paper-and-pencil intelligence tests to screen inductees Vocational testing was emphasized in the 1930s because of: - Answers the Great Depression Congress subsequently passed the National Defense Education Act (NDEA), which contained: - Answers Title V funds testing in secondary schools to identify students with outstanding talents and encourage them to continue their education, especially in the sciences. National Education Act Resolution 72-44 (1972): - Answers called for a moratorium on the use of standardized intelligence, aptitude, and achievement tests Psychological test is: - Answers "an objective and standardized measure of behavior" Test scores are: - Answers statistics with meaning in relation to a person Score is: - Answers a reflection of a particular behavior at a moment in time To understand a test, counselors must know the following: - Answers -The characteristics of its sample -Types and degree of its reliability and validity -Reliability and validity of comparable tests -Scoring procedures -Method of administration -Limitations and strengths Psychometrics: - Answers comparing the test scores of a person to a norm-referenced group The primary function of tests is to help clients make better decisions about their futures, as well as the following: - Answers - Gain self-understanding - Help counselors gauge if clients' needs are within their range of expertise - Help counselors better understand clients - Help counselors determine counseling methods to use - Help counselors predict clients' performance - Help clients stimulate new interests within clients - Help counselors evaluate the outcome of their efforts Qualities of good tests are: - Answers Validity Reliability Standardization and Norms Validity is: - Answers the degree to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure; is the most important test quality Four types of validity: - Answers - Content/face validity: the degree to which a test appears to measure what it is supposed to - Construct validity: the degree to which a test measures an intended hypothetical construct - Criterion validity: the comparison of test scores with a person's actual performance of a certain skill across time and situations - Consequential validity: the social implications or consequences of test use and interpretation Reliability: - Answers measure of the degree to which a test produces consistent test scores when people are retested with the same or an equivalent instrument Three ways of determining reliability: - Answers - Test-retest: the same test is given again after a period of time - Parallel-form or alternate-form: two equivalent forms of the same test are given - Internal consistency analysis: the scores of two arbitrarily selected halves of a test are compared. Standardization: - Answers the uniform conditions under which a test is administered and scored; makes possible the comparison of an individual's successive scores over time as well as the comparison of scores of different individuals Norms: - Answers average performance scores for specified groups; make possible meaningful comparisons among people regarding what can be expected Classification of Tests: - Answers •Standardized vs. nonstandardized •Individual vs. group •Speed vs. power •Performance vs. paper and pencil •Objective vs. subjective •Maximum vs. typical performance •Norm vs. criterion-based Intelligence is: - Answers defined in many different ways, including multiple forms of intelligence; often related to linguistic and problem-solving capabilities Intelligence tests include: - Answers the Standford-Binet Intelligence Scale, the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence-III (WPPSI-III), the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-Fourth Edition (WISC-IV), and the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale—Fourth Edition (WAIS-IV) An aptitude is: - Answers a capability for a task or type of skill, and an aptitude test measures a person's ability to profit from further training or experience in an occupation or skill Aptitude tests are usually divided into two categories: - Answers 1) Multiaptitude batteries - which test a number of skills by administering a variety of tests; and 2) Component ability tests - which assess a single ability or skill, such as music or mechanical ability An interest inventory is: - Answers a test or checklist that assesses a person's preferences for activities and topics Career inventories include: - Answers Strong Interest Inventory (SII)-Self-Directed Search (SDS)-Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS)-Career Beliefs Inventory (CBI) A personality test may be defined as: - Answers any of several methods of analyzing personality, such as checklists, personality inventories, and projective techniques Personality tests may be divided into two main categories: - Answers objective and projective Some of the best-known objective tests are: - Answers the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2), the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), and the Edwards Personal Preference Schedule (EPPS) Projective tests include: - Answers the Rorschach, the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), and the House-Tree-Person (HTP) Test An achievement test is: - Answers a measure of an individual's degree of accomplishment or learning in a subject or task; achievement tests may be either teacher made or standardize The advantages of teacher-made tests are: - Answers that they measure specific units of study emphasized in an educational setting, are easy to keep up-to-date, and reflect current emphases and information Standardized tests, however, measure: - Answers more general educational objectives, are usually more carefully constructed, and give the test taker a good idea about how he or she compares with a wider sample of others in a particular subject Four basic interpretations can be helpful to test takers, depending on the test: - Answers 1) Descriptive interpretation - which provides information on the current status of the test taker 2) Genetic interpretation - which focuses on how the tested person got to be the way he or she is now 3) Predictive interpretation - which concentrates on forecasting the future 4) Evaluative interpretation - which includes recommendations by the test interpreter Assessment is: - Answers testing; the procedures and processes of collecting information and measures of human behavior apart from test data Assessment has six purposes: - Answers 1) Obtain information on client's presenting problem 2) Identify contributing variables to the problem 3) Determine the client's goals/expectations 4) Gather baseline data 5) Educate and motivate the client 6) Plan treatment interventions and strategies Diagnosis is: - Answers "the meaning or interpretation that is derived from assessment information and is usually translated in the form of some type of classification system" When used appropriately, diagnoses do the following: - Answers - Describe a person's current functioning - Provide a common language for clinicians to use in discussing the client - Lead to a consistent and continual type of care - Help direct and focus treatment planning - Help counselors fit clients within their scope of treatment In some cases, a dual diagnosis will be made, which basically means that: - Answers an individual is perceived to be carrying both a substance abuse and mental health diagnosis Comorbid is: - Answers two conditions existing simultaneously but independently Clinical decision making refers to: - Answers "the intricate decisions professional counselors make when they assess the degree of severity of a client's symptoms, identify a client's level of functioning, and make decisions about a client's prognosis" Important aspects of career counseling include the following: - Answers -The need for career counseling is greater than the need for psychotherapy. It deals with the inner and outer world of individuals -Career counseling can be therapeutic as there is a positive correlation between career and personal adjustment -Career counseling is difficult because the counselor must be aware of both personal and work variables and how they interact Two divisions within the ACA devoted to career development and counseling are: - Answers -National Career Development Association (NCDA) -National Employment Counselors Association (NECA) The NCDA defines career counseling as: - Answers a "process of assisting individuals in the development of a life-career with a focus on the definition of the worker role and how that role interacts with other life roles" Throughout its history, career counseling has been known by a number of different names, including: - Answers vocational guidance, occupational counseling, and vocational counseling Career is: - Answers more modern and inclusive than the word vocation and broader than the word occupation Occupation is defined as: - Answers a group of similar jobs found in different industries or organizations A job is: - Answers merely an activity undertaken for economic returns C=W+L - Answers integration and interaction of work and leisure in one's career over the life span; (career = work + leisure Career information is: - Answers information related to the world of work that can be useful in the process of career development Career data is: - Answers facts about occupational and educational opportunities Career guidance is: - Answers all activities that disseminate information about present or future vocations in such a way that individuals become more knowledgeable and aware about who they are in relation to the world of work References for careers and trends includes: - Answers O*NET, DOT, Occupational Outlook Handbook, DISCOVER, SIGI, Kuder Career Planning System, National Occupational Information Coordinating Committee (NOICC), Online Career Portfolio Career Theories include: - Answers -Trait-and-factor theory -Developmental theories -Social cognitive career theory -Constructivist career theory Trait and Factor Theory - Answers - Traits of clients should be assessed and then matched with factors inherent in various occupations - Can be traced back to Frank Parsons, and used by E.G. Williamson during the Great Depression - Ex. Holland's 6 Types of personality and occupational environment: -Realistic -Investigative -Artistic -Social -Enterprising Two of the most widely known career theories are those associated with: - Answers Donald Super and Eli Ginzberg Compared with other theoretical propositions, developmental theories are: - Answers generally more inclusive, more concerned with longitudinal expression of career behavior, and more inclined to highlight the importance of self-concept The developmental approach may be viewed as: - Answers career-pattern counseling Super believed that: - Answers career choice is linked with implementing one's vocational self-concept; he suggested 5 stages of vocational development, which included the following: Growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and decline or disengagement Social Cognitive Career Theory (SCCT) - Answers - Assumes that personal attributes, the environment, and overt behavior operate with each other in an interlocking bidirectional way - Most important part is self-efficacy - one's "beliefs regarding her or his ability to successfully perform a particular task" - Krumboltz believes that 4 factors influence career choice: -Genetic endowment -Conditions and events in environment -Learning experiences -Task approach skills Constructivist Career Theory - Answers - Based on meaning-making - An interactive process - as clients talk, career counselors communicate with them about their understanding of the client's own worlds - Careers do not unfold; rather, they are developed as individuals "make choices that express their self-concepts and substantiate their goals in the social reality of work roles - Holland's hexagon of personality and work environment types (RIASEC) is utilized as a bridge in the process of helping individuals transition between career content and career process Where is career counseling typically is offered? - Answers in college counseling centers, rehabilitation facilities, employment offices, and public schools Many people have difficulties making career decisions, related to three factors: - Answers -Lack of readiness -Lack of information -Inconsistent information