NURS 6531 FINAL 2 (WALDEN) NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL
EXAM TEST BANK| NURS6531 ADVANCED PRACTICE
CARE OF ADULTS ACROSS THE LIFESPAN FINAL
EXAM REVIEW WITH 250 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/ GRADED A+
A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation presents with proteinuria.
What will the provider do next?
a. Evaluate her blood pressure and discuss with OB/GYN
b. Monitor serum glucose for gestational diabetes
c. Perform a 24-hour urine collection
d. Reassure her that this normal at this stage of pregnancy – Correct - A
Proteinuria after 24 weeks gestation is usually a sign of preeclampsia, so
her blood pressure should be evaluated and discussed with the OB/GYN.
Serum glucose evaluation for gestational diabetes is performed as part of
routine screening but is not related to the finding of proteinuria. A 24-
hour urine collection is not indicated.
An older male patient reports gross hematuria but denies flank pain and
fever. What will the provider do to manage this patient?
a. Monitor blood pressure closely
b. Obtain a urine culture
c. Perform a 24-hour urine collection
d. Refer for cystoscopy and imaging - Correct Answer - d
Gross hematuria in older men denotes a significant risk of malignant
disease, so cystoscopy and imaging are indicated. Proteinuria is
concerning for hypertension. The patient does not have flank pain or
pg. 1
,fever, so the likelihood of infection is lower. A 24-hour urine collection
is not indicated.
A female patient reports hematuria and a urine dipstick and culture
indicate a urinary tract infection. After treatment for the urinary tract
infection (UTI), what testing is indicated for this patient?
a. 24-hour urine collection to evaluate for glomerulonephritis
b. Bladder scan
c. Repeat urinalysis
d. Voiding cystourethrogram - Correct Answer - C
After treatment has been completed, repeated urinalysis is necessary to
ensure that the hematuria has resolved. Failure to follow hematuria to
resolution may result in failure to diagnose a serious condition.
Which is a prerenal cause of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
a. Hemorrhagic shock
b. Hydronephrosis
c. Hypertension
d. Renal calculi - Correct Answer - A
Hemorrhagic shock interferes with perfusion of the kidney, which is a
prerenal cause of AKI. Hydronephrosis and renal calculi are postrenal
causes leading to obstruction to renal pelvis, ureters, bladder, or urethra.
Hypertension is an intrinsic cause.
A primary care provider sees a new patient who reports having a
diagnosis of chronic kidney disease for several years. The patient is
taking one medication for hypertension which has been prescribed since
the diagnosis was made. The provider orders laboratory tests to evaluate
pg. 2
,the status of this patient. Which laboratory finding indicates a need to
refer the patient to a nephrologist?
a. Albumin/creatinine ratio (ACR) of 325 mg/g
b. Blood pressure of 145/85 mm Hg
c. Glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 35
d. Urine red blood cell (RBC) count of 15/hpf - Correct Answer - A
An albumin/creatinine ratio greater than 300 mg/g warrants referral. A
specialist is necessary for persistent hypertension refractory to treatment
with four or more agents, a GFR of less than 30, and urine RBC greater
than 20/hpf.
Which tests should be monitored regularly to monitor for complications
of chronic renal disease (CRD)? (Select all that apply.)
a. Liver enzymes
b. Parathyroid hormone levels
c. Serum glucose
d. Serum lipids
e. Vitamin D levels - Correct Answer - B, D, E
CKD can cause hyperparathyroidism, hyperlipidemia, and alterations in
vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus metabolism, so these should be
monitored. Liver function and serum glucose are not affected by CKD.
A patient diagnosed with diabetes has symptoms consistent with renal
stones. Which type of stone is most likely in this patient?
a. Citrate
b. Cysteine
c. Oxalate
pg. 3
, d. Uric acid - Correct Answer - D
Uric acid stones are more prevalent in diabetics. Citrate, cysteine, and
oxalate are less common in all patients.
A patient diagnosed with acute renal colic is experiencing nausea and
vomiting. A urinalysis reveals hematuria but is otherwise normal. A
radiographic exam shows several radiopaque stones in the ureter which
are less than 1 mm in diameter. What will the primary provider do
initially to manage this patient?
a. Obtain a consultation with a urology specialist
b. Order a narcotic pain medication and increased oral fluids
c. Prescribe desmopressin and a corticosteroid medication
d. Prescribe nifedipine and hospitalize for intravenous antibiotics -
Correct Answer - B
Stones that are less than 1 mm in diameter will usually pass
spontaneously. The provider should counsel the patient to increase fluid
intake and should prescribe adequate pain medication. A consultation is
not necessary unless initial measures fail. Desmopressin and
corticosteroids have not been shown to be effective. Nifedipine and IV
fluids may be used as a secondary option.
A previously lucid patient with early-stage Alzheimer's disease is
hospitalized after a surgical procedure and exhibits distractibility and
perceptual disturbances that occur only in the late afternoon. The patient
has difficulty sleeping at night and instead sleeps much of the morning.
What is the likely cause of these symptoms?
a. Hyperactive delirium
b. Hypoactive delirium
c. Sundowner syndrome
pg. 4
EXAM TEST BANK| NURS6531 ADVANCED PRACTICE
CARE OF ADULTS ACROSS THE LIFESPAN FINAL
EXAM REVIEW WITH 250 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/ GRADED A+
A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation presents with proteinuria.
What will the provider do next?
a. Evaluate her blood pressure and discuss with OB/GYN
b. Monitor serum glucose for gestational diabetes
c. Perform a 24-hour urine collection
d. Reassure her that this normal at this stage of pregnancy – Correct - A
Proteinuria after 24 weeks gestation is usually a sign of preeclampsia, so
her blood pressure should be evaluated and discussed with the OB/GYN.
Serum glucose evaluation for gestational diabetes is performed as part of
routine screening but is not related to the finding of proteinuria. A 24-
hour urine collection is not indicated.
An older male patient reports gross hematuria but denies flank pain and
fever. What will the provider do to manage this patient?
a. Monitor blood pressure closely
b. Obtain a urine culture
c. Perform a 24-hour urine collection
d. Refer for cystoscopy and imaging - Correct Answer - d
Gross hematuria in older men denotes a significant risk of malignant
disease, so cystoscopy and imaging are indicated. Proteinuria is
concerning for hypertension. The patient does not have flank pain or
pg. 1
,fever, so the likelihood of infection is lower. A 24-hour urine collection
is not indicated.
A female patient reports hematuria and a urine dipstick and culture
indicate a urinary tract infection. After treatment for the urinary tract
infection (UTI), what testing is indicated for this patient?
a. 24-hour urine collection to evaluate for glomerulonephritis
b. Bladder scan
c. Repeat urinalysis
d. Voiding cystourethrogram - Correct Answer - C
After treatment has been completed, repeated urinalysis is necessary to
ensure that the hematuria has resolved. Failure to follow hematuria to
resolution may result in failure to diagnose a serious condition.
Which is a prerenal cause of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
a. Hemorrhagic shock
b. Hydronephrosis
c. Hypertension
d. Renal calculi - Correct Answer - A
Hemorrhagic shock interferes with perfusion of the kidney, which is a
prerenal cause of AKI. Hydronephrosis and renal calculi are postrenal
causes leading to obstruction to renal pelvis, ureters, bladder, or urethra.
Hypertension is an intrinsic cause.
A primary care provider sees a new patient who reports having a
diagnosis of chronic kidney disease for several years. The patient is
taking one medication for hypertension which has been prescribed since
the diagnosis was made. The provider orders laboratory tests to evaluate
pg. 2
,the status of this patient. Which laboratory finding indicates a need to
refer the patient to a nephrologist?
a. Albumin/creatinine ratio (ACR) of 325 mg/g
b. Blood pressure of 145/85 mm Hg
c. Glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 35
d. Urine red blood cell (RBC) count of 15/hpf - Correct Answer - A
An albumin/creatinine ratio greater than 300 mg/g warrants referral. A
specialist is necessary for persistent hypertension refractory to treatment
with four or more agents, a GFR of less than 30, and urine RBC greater
than 20/hpf.
Which tests should be monitored regularly to monitor for complications
of chronic renal disease (CRD)? (Select all that apply.)
a. Liver enzymes
b. Parathyroid hormone levels
c. Serum glucose
d. Serum lipids
e. Vitamin D levels - Correct Answer - B, D, E
CKD can cause hyperparathyroidism, hyperlipidemia, and alterations in
vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus metabolism, so these should be
monitored. Liver function and serum glucose are not affected by CKD.
A patient diagnosed with diabetes has symptoms consistent with renal
stones. Which type of stone is most likely in this patient?
a. Citrate
b. Cysteine
c. Oxalate
pg. 3
, d. Uric acid - Correct Answer - D
Uric acid stones are more prevalent in diabetics. Citrate, cysteine, and
oxalate are less common in all patients.
A patient diagnosed with acute renal colic is experiencing nausea and
vomiting. A urinalysis reveals hematuria but is otherwise normal. A
radiographic exam shows several radiopaque stones in the ureter which
are less than 1 mm in diameter. What will the primary provider do
initially to manage this patient?
a. Obtain a consultation with a urology specialist
b. Order a narcotic pain medication and increased oral fluids
c. Prescribe desmopressin and a corticosteroid medication
d. Prescribe nifedipine and hospitalize for intravenous antibiotics -
Correct Answer - B
Stones that are less than 1 mm in diameter will usually pass
spontaneously. The provider should counsel the patient to increase fluid
intake and should prescribe adequate pain medication. A consultation is
not necessary unless initial measures fail. Desmopressin and
corticosteroids have not been shown to be effective. Nifedipine and IV
fluids may be used as a secondary option.
A previously lucid patient with early-stage Alzheimer's disease is
hospitalized after a surgical procedure and exhibits distractibility and
perceptual disturbances that occur only in the late afternoon. The patient
has difficulty sleeping at night and instead sleeps much of the morning.
What is the likely cause of these symptoms?
a. Hyperactive delirium
b. Hypoactive delirium
c. Sundowner syndrome
pg. 4
