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NUR 209/NUR209 Final Exam V2 | Medical Surgical Nursing II Q&A with Rationale | Fortis College

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NUR 209/NUR209 Final Exam V2 | Medical Surgical Nursing II Q&A with Rationale | Fortis College

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NUR 209/NUR209 Final Exam V2 | Medical-
Surgical Nursing II Q&A with Rationale |
Fortis College
1. A nurse is caring for a patient who is 24 hours post-thyroidectomy. The patient reports

tingling in the fingers and around the mouth. Which action should the nurse take first?

A. Assess for Chvostek’s sign.


B. Check the patient’s blood pressure.


C. Administer a dose of levothyroxine.


D. Notify the surgeon immediately.


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Tingling in the extremities and circumoral area are classic signs of

hypocalcemia, which can occur if the parathyroid glands are accidentally damaged or

removed during a thyroidectomy. Assessing for Chvostek’s sign involves tapping the facial

nerve to look for twitching, which confirms neuromuscular irritability. This assessment is

the priority to determine the severity of the electrolyte imbalance before notifying the

provider for calcium replacement.


2. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed epoetin alfa. What is the primary

purpose of this medication in this population?

A. To lower serum potassium levels.

,B. To increase calcium absorption.


C. To stimulate red blood cell production.


D. To reduce nitrogenous waste products.


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: In CKD, the kidneys fail to produce enough erythropoietin, the

hormone responsible for stimulating the bone marrow to create red blood cells. Epoetin

alfa is a synthetic form of this hormone used to treat the resulting anemia. This medication

helps improve oxygenation and reduces the need for blood transfusions in patients with

renal failure.


3. The nurse is assessing a patient with a history of cirrhosis who has developed hepatic

encephalopathy. Which laboratory finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?

A. Elevated serum ammonia levels.


B. Decreased serum creatinine.


C. Elevated serum glucose.


D. Decreased prothrombin time.


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the liver’s inability to detoxify

metabolic byproducts, primarily ammonia. When ammonia levels rise, the toxin crosses the

,blood-brain barrier, leading to cognitive impairment and altered consciousness. Monitoring

ammonia levels is crucial for evaluating the effectiveness of treatments like lactulose.


4. A patient is admitted with suspected Acute Pancreatitis. Which diagnostic test is the most

specific indicator for this condition?

A. Serum Amylase


B. Serum Lipase


C. White Blood Cell Count


D. Serum Bilirubin


Correct Answer: B


Expert Explanation: While both amylase and lipase rise during acute pancreatitis, lipase is

considered more specific because it remains elevated for a longer period and is less

influenced by other factors. Amylase can rise due to other conditions like mumps or

salivary gland issues. Diagnosing pancreatitis usually relies on the elevation of these

enzymes alongside clinical symptoms like severe epigastric pain.


5. A patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus presents to the ER with a blood glucose of 550

mg/dL, fruity breath, and Kussmaul respirations. What is the priority nursing intervention?

A. Administering subcutaneous glargine insulin.


B. Providing a carbohydrate-rich snack.


C. Initiating intravenous fluid resuscitation with Normal Saline.

, D. Ordering a stat arterial blood gas (ABG).


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: This patient is exhibiting signs of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA), which

causes severe dehydration due to osmotic diuresis. The immediate priority is to restore

circulatory volume with isotonic fluids before starting insulin therapy. While insulin is

necessary to stop ketone production, fluid resuscitation prevents hypovolemic shock and

stabilizes the patient.


6. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect in a patient diagnosed with Cushing’s

Syndrome?

A. Weight loss and hypotension.


B. Trunk obesity and a ‘buffalo hump.’


C. Hyperpigmentation of the skin.


D. Increased muscle mass in the extremities.


Correct Answer: B


Expert Explanation: Cushing’s Syndrome is characterized by an excess of glucocorticoids,

leading to a redistribution of fat to the abdomen and cervical spine area. Patients often

present with thin extremities due to muscle wasting alongside a rounded face and

abdominal striae. This condition contrasts with Addison’s disease, which involves cortisol

deficiency and weight loss.

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