PNR 203/PNR203 Exam 1 V3 | Maternal-
Newborn Nursing Q&A with Rationale |
Fortis College
1. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client whose last menstrual
period (LMP) began on September 10th. Using Naegele’s rule, which date should the nurse
provide?
A. June 17th
B. June 3rd
C. December 17th
D. May 10th
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: To calculate the EDD using Naegele’s rule, the nurse subtracts 3
months from the first day of the LMP and adds 7 days and 1 year. Subtracting 3 months
from September 10th results in June 10th, and adding 7 days brings the date to June 17th.
This method assumes a standard 28-day cycle and is a foundational assessment tool in
prenatal care.
2. A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation reports feeling dizzy and lightheaded while lying on
her back. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Assess the client’s blood glucose level
,B. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
C. Assist the client into a side-lying position
D. Notify the provider of potential preeclampsia
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when the heavy uterus
compresses the inferior vena cava, reducing venous return and cardiac output. Placing the
client in a side-lying (lateral) position relieves the pressure on the vena cava and restores
blood flow. The nurse should prioritize this immediate mechanical correction before
seeking further medical intervention.
3. A nurse is assessing a client in the first trimester. Which finding is considered a positive sign
of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive serum pregnancy test
C. Fetal heart tones heard by Doppler
D. Chadwick’s sign
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can be attributed only to
the presence of a fetus, such as fetal heart tones, ultrasound visualization, or palpation of
fetal movement by an examiner. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign because it is subjective
,and can be caused by other factors. A positive pregnancy test and Chadwick’s sign are
probable signs, as they strongly suggest pregnancy but are not definitive proof.
4. A client is prescribed Magnesium Sulfate for preeclampsia. Which assessment finding
requires the nurse to immediately discontinue the infusion?
A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
B. Serum magnesium level of 6.0 mEq/L
C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
D. Increased urinary output
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Magnesium sulfate toxicity is a life-threatening complication that
manifests as the loss of deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrest.
The nurse must monitor DTRs, respiratory rate, and urine output hourly to ensure safe
administration. If reflexes are absent, the infusion must be stopped, and calcium gluconate
should be readily available as the antidote.
5. A nurse is teaching a group of pregnant women about nutrition. Which vitamin is most
important to prevent neural tube defects?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Folic acid
, D. Vitamin A
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Folic acid (Vitamin B9) is essential for DNA synthesis and the proper
closure of the fetal neural tube during the first few weeks of gestation. Health organizations
recommend that all women of childbearing age consume 400 to 800 mcg of folic acid daily.
Adequate intake significantly reduces the incidence of conditions such as spina bifida and
anencephaly.
6. During a prenatal visit, a nurse notes a client’s GTPAL as 4-1-1-1-2. How many living
children does the client have?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: In the GTPAL system, ‘L’ stands for the number of living children. In
the sequence 4-1-1-1-2, the final digit ‘2’ indicates the client currently has two living
children. This system provides a comprehensive obstetric history, including total
pregnancies (Gravida), term births (T), preterm births (P), and abortions/miscarriages (A).
Newborn Nursing Q&A with Rationale |
Fortis College
1. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client whose last menstrual
period (LMP) began on September 10th. Using Naegele’s rule, which date should the nurse
provide?
A. June 17th
B. June 3rd
C. December 17th
D. May 10th
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: To calculate the EDD using Naegele’s rule, the nurse subtracts 3
months from the first day of the LMP and adds 7 days and 1 year. Subtracting 3 months
from September 10th results in June 10th, and adding 7 days brings the date to June 17th.
This method assumes a standard 28-day cycle and is a foundational assessment tool in
prenatal care.
2. A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation reports feeling dizzy and lightheaded while lying on
her back. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Assess the client’s blood glucose level
,B. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
C. Assist the client into a side-lying position
D. Notify the provider of potential preeclampsia
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when the heavy uterus
compresses the inferior vena cava, reducing venous return and cardiac output. Placing the
client in a side-lying (lateral) position relieves the pressure on the vena cava and restores
blood flow. The nurse should prioritize this immediate mechanical correction before
seeking further medical intervention.
3. A nurse is assessing a client in the first trimester. Which finding is considered a positive sign
of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive serum pregnancy test
C. Fetal heart tones heard by Doppler
D. Chadwick’s sign
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can be attributed only to
the presence of a fetus, such as fetal heart tones, ultrasound visualization, or palpation of
fetal movement by an examiner. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign because it is subjective
,and can be caused by other factors. A positive pregnancy test and Chadwick’s sign are
probable signs, as they strongly suggest pregnancy but are not definitive proof.
4. A client is prescribed Magnesium Sulfate for preeclampsia. Which assessment finding
requires the nurse to immediately discontinue the infusion?
A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
B. Serum magnesium level of 6.0 mEq/L
C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
D. Increased urinary output
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Magnesium sulfate toxicity is a life-threatening complication that
manifests as the loss of deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrest.
The nurse must monitor DTRs, respiratory rate, and urine output hourly to ensure safe
administration. If reflexes are absent, the infusion must be stopped, and calcium gluconate
should be readily available as the antidote.
5. A nurse is teaching a group of pregnant women about nutrition. Which vitamin is most
important to prevent neural tube defects?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Folic acid
, D. Vitamin A
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Folic acid (Vitamin B9) is essential for DNA synthesis and the proper
closure of the fetal neural tube during the first few weeks of gestation. Health organizations
recommend that all women of childbearing age consume 400 to 800 mcg of folic acid daily.
Adequate intake significantly reduces the incidence of conditions such as spina bifida and
anencephaly.
6. During a prenatal visit, a nurse notes a client’s GTPAL as 4-1-1-1-2. How many living
children does the client have?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: In the GTPAL system, ‘L’ stands for the number of living children. In
the sequence 4-1-1-1-2, the final digit ‘2’ indicates the client currently has two living
children. This system provides a comprehensive obstetric history, including total
pregnancies (Gravida), term births (T), preterm births (P), and abortions/miscarriages (A).
