Virtual ATI Green Light Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Updated
Questions and Answers | Complete ATI Comprehensive Predictor Review
Study Guide with Verified Solutions, Detailed Rationales, Medical-Surgical
Nursing, Pharmacology, Fundamentals of Nursing, Maternal-Newborn
Nursing, Pediatric Nursing, Mental Health Nursing, Leadership and
Management, Community Health Nursing, Prioritization and Delegation,
Patient Safety, Infection Control, NGN Clinical Judgment Case Studies, ATI
Remediation Strategies and NCLEX-RN Licensure Preparation
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client with heart failure. Which finding requires
immediate intervention? A. 2+ pitting edema B. Weight gain of 1 kg C. Oxygen
saturation of 88% D. Heart rate of 95 bpm CORRECT ANSWER: C. Oxygen saturation
of 88% Rationale: Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates hypoxemia requiring
immediate intervention. Edema and mild weight gain are expected, and a heart rate of
95 bpm is normal.
Question 2: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is
the priority? A. Hang the blood within 30 minutes B. Verify the client's identity with
another nurse C. Assess the client's vital signs D. Prime the tubing with normal saline
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Verify the client's identity with another nurse Rationale:
Verifying the client's identity with another nurse is the priority to prevent a fatal
hemolytic transfusion reaction. Other actions are important but secondary to safety.
Question 3: A client is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile. Which isolation
precaution is required? A. Airborne B. Droplet C. Contact D. Protective CORRECT
ANSWER: C. Contact Rationale: C. difficile is transmitted via direct or indirect contact.
Contact precautions, including gown and gloves, are required. Hand hygiene with soap
and water is essential.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. The drainage system is
knocked over and cracks. What is the nurse's first action? A. Clamp the chest tube B.
Submerge the tube in sterile water C. Notify the provider immediately D. Apply an
occlusive dressing CORRECT ANSWER: B. Submerge the tube in sterile water
Rationale: Submerging the end of the chest tube in sterile water creates a temporary
water seal, preventing air from entering the pleural space and causing a tension
pneumothorax.
Question 5: A nurse is teaching a client about digoxin toxicity. Which symptom
should the client report? A. Increased appetite B. Visual disturbances C. Polyuria D.
Tachycardia CORRECT ANSWER: B. Visual disturbances Rationale: Visual
disturbances, such as yellow or green halos around objects, are classic signs of digoxin
toxicity. Other signs include nausea, vomiting, and bradycardia.
Question 6: A client with type 1 diabetes has a blood glucose of 55 mg/dL. Which
intervention is appropriate? A. Administer regular insulin B. Provide 15g of fast-acting
carbohydrates C. Encourage vigorous exercise D. Withhold all oral intake CORRECT
ANSWER: B. Provide 15g of fast-acting carbohydrates Rationale: A blood glucose of
,55 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia. The rule of 15 applies: give 15g of fast-acting carbs,
wait 15 minutes, and recheck.
Question 7: A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism.
Which finding is most expected? A. Bradycardia B. Sudden onset of dyspnea C.
Hypertension D. Productive cough with green sputum CORRECT ANSWER: B. Sudden
onset of dyspnea Rationale: Sudden onset of dyspnea, tachycardia, and chest pain are
hallmark signs of a pulmonary embolism. Bradycardia and hypertension are not typical.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a postoperative client. Which finding indicates a
potential complication? A. Urine output of 35 mL/hr B. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) C.
Serosanguineous drainage on dressing D. Absence of bowel sounds at 12 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Urine output of 35 mL/hr Rationale: Urine output less than 30
mL/hr indicates potential renal impairment or hypovolemia and requires immediate
notification of the provider.
Question 9: A client is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin. Which lab
value must the nurse monitor? A. PT B. INR C. aPTT D. Platelet count CORRECT
ANSWER: C. aPTT Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used
to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin. PT and INR monitor warfarin therapy.
Question 10: A nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which task
is appropriate? A. Assessing a new admission B. Administering oral medications C.
Ambulating a stable postoperative client D. Teaching a client about insulin
administration CORRECT ANSWER: C. Ambulating a stable postoperative client
Rationale: Ambulating a stable client is within the AP's scope of practice. Assessment,
medication administration, and teaching are nursing responsibilities.
Question 11: A client with COPD is prescribed oxygen. Which delivery method is
most appropriate? A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min B. Venturi mask at 24% C.
Nasal cannula at 6 L/min D. Simple face mask at 10 L/min CORRECT ANSWER: B.
Venturi mask at 24% Rationale: A Venturi mask delivers a precise, low concentration of
oxygen, preventing the suppression of the hypoxic drive in clients with COPD.
Question 12: A nurse is caring for a client with a severe burn injury. Which fluid is
expected in the first 24 hours? A. D5W B. 0.45% NaCl C. Lactated Ringer's D. 3% NaCl
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Lactated Ringer's Rationale: Lactated Ringer's is the fluid of
choice for burn resuscitation (Parkland formula) as it closely matches extracellular fluid
and helps prevent metabolic acidosis.
Question 13: A client is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. Which medication
should the nurse administer first? A. Diphenhydramine B. Epinephrine C.
Methylprednisolone D. Albuterol CORRECT ANSWER: B. Epinephrine Rationale:
Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. It causes vasoconstriction and
bronchodilation, reversing life-threatening symptoms immediately.
Question 14: A nurse is assessing a client with increased intracranial pressure
(ICP). Which sign is a late indicator? A. Restlessness B. Bradycardia C. Headache D.
, Nausea CORRECT ANSWER: B. Bradycardia Rationale: Bradycardia, along with
widened pulse pressure and irregular respirations (Cushing's triad), is a late and
ominous sign of increased ICP.
Question 15: A client is prescribed warfarin. Which dietary instruction is essential?
A. Increase intake of leafy green vegetables B. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K
C. Avoid all fruits and vegetables D. Take the medication with milk CORRECT ANSWER:
B. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K Rationale: Vitamin K antagonizes
warfarin. Clients should not avoid it entirely but must keep their intake consistent to
maintain stable INR levels.
Question 16: A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction.
Which finding requires intervention? A. Greenish drainage B. Gastric pH of 3 C.
Absent bowel sounds D. Tube secured to the nose CORRECT ANSWER: C. Absent
bowel sounds Rationale: Absent bowel sounds may indicate paralytic ileus or bowel
obstruction, requiring provider notification. Green drainage and low pH are expected.
Question 17: A client with tuberculosis is being discharged. Which statement
indicates understanding? A. "I will stop taking my medication when I feel better." B. "I
will isolate myself in my bedroom for 6 months." C. "I will cover my mouth when I
cough." D. "My family does not need to be tested." CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will cover
my mouth when I cough." Rationale: Covering the mouth prevents airborne
transmission. Medications must be completed fully, and close contacts require testing.
Question 18: A nurse is assessing a client with hypokalemia. Which finding is
expected? A. Hyperactive bowel sounds B. Muscle weakness C. Hypertension D.
Bradycardia CORRECT ANSWER: B. Muscle weakness Rationale: Hypokalemia causes
decreased neuromuscular excitability, leading to muscle weakness, cramps, and
decreased bowel sounds.
Question 19: A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action is a
priority? A. Monitor blood glucose levels B. Change the dressing every 7 days C.
Administer IV push medications through the TPN line D. Increase the infusion rate if
behind schedule CORRECT ANSWER: A. Monitor blood glucose levels Rationale: TPN
contains high concentrations of dextrose, putting the client at high risk for
hyperglycemia. Blood glucose must be monitored regularly.
Question 20: A nurse is caring for a client with a seizure disorder. Which action is
appropriate during a seizure? A. Insert a tongue depressor B. Restrain the client's
limbs C. Turn the client to the side D. Elevate the head of the bed CORRECT ANSWER:
C. Turn the client to the side Rationale: Turning the client to the side promotes
drainage of secretions and prevents aspiration. Nothing should be placed in the mouth,
and limbs should not be restrained.
Question 21: A client with myocardial infarction reports chest pain. Which
medication is administered first? A. Morphine B. Nitroglycerin C. Aspirin D. Metoprolol
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Aspirin Rationale: Aspirin is given immediately to inhibit
Questions and Answers | Complete ATI Comprehensive Predictor Review
Study Guide with Verified Solutions, Detailed Rationales, Medical-Surgical
Nursing, Pharmacology, Fundamentals of Nursing, Maternal-Newborn
Nursing, Pediatric Nursing, Mental Health Nursing, Leadership and
Management, Community Health Nursing, Prioritization and Delegation,
Patient Safety, Infection Control, NGN Clinical Judgment Case Studies, ATI
Remediation Strategies and NCLEX-RN Licensure Preparation
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client with heart failure. Which finding requires
immediate intervention? A. 2+ pitting edema B. Weight gain of 1 kg C. Oxygen
saturation of 88% D. Heart rate of 95 bpm CORRECT ANSWER: C. Oxygen saturation
of 88% Rationale: Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates hypoxemia requiring
immediate intervention. Edema and mild weight gain are expected, and a heart rate of
95 bpm is normal.
Question 2: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is
the priority? A. Hang the blood within 30 minutes B. Verify the client's identity with
another nurse C. Assess the client's vital signs D. Prime the tubing with normal saline
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Verify the client's identity with another nurse Rationale:
Verifying the client's identity with another nurse is the priority to prevent a fatal
hemolytic transfusion reaction. Other actions are important but secondary to safety.
Question 3: A client is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile. Which isolation
precaution is required? A. Airborne B. Droplet C. Contact D. Protective CORRECT
ANSWER: C. Contact Rationale: C. difficile is transmitted via direct or indirect contact.
Contact precautions, including gown and gloves, are required. Hand hygiene with soap
and water is essential.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. The drainage system is
knocked over and cracks. What is the nurse's first action? A. Clamp the chest tube B.
Submerge the tube in sterile water C. Notify the provider immediately D. Apply an
occlusive dressing CORRECT ANSWER: B. Submerge the tube in sterile water
Rationale: Submerging the end of the chest tube in sterile water creates a temporary
water seal, preventing air from entering the pleural space and causing a tension
pneumothorax.
Question 5: A nurse is teaching a client about digoxin toxicity. Which symptom
should the client report? A. Increased appetite B. Visual disturbances C. Polyuria D.
Tachycardia CORRECT ANSWER: B. Visual disturbances Rationale: Visual
disturbances, such as yellow or green halos around objects, are classic signs of digoxin
toxicity. Other signs include nausea, vomiting, and bradycardia.
Question 6: A client with type 1 diabetes has a blood glucose of 55 mg/dL. Which
intervention is appropriate? A. Administer regular insulin B. Provide 15g of fast-acting
carbohydrates C. Encourage vigorous exercise D. Withhold all oral intake CORRECT
ANSWER: B. Provide 15g of fast-acting carbohydrates Rationale: A blood glucose of
,55 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia. The rule of 15 applies: give 15g of fast-acting carbs,
wait 15 minutes, and recheck.
Question 7: A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism.
Which finding is most expected? A. Bradycardia B. Sudden onset of dyspnea C.
Hypertension D. Productive cough with green sputum CORRECT ANSWER: B. Sudden
onset of dyspnea Rationale: Sudden onset of dyspnea, tachycardia, and chest pain are
hallmark signs of a pulmonary embolism. Bradycardia and hypertension are not typical.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a postoperative client. Which finding indicates a
potential complication? A. Urine output of 35 mL/hr B. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) C.
Serosanguineous drainage on dressing D. Absence of bowel sounds at 12 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Urine output of 35 mL/hr Rationale: Urine output less than 30
mL/hr indicates potential renal impairment or hypovolemia and requires immediate
notification of the provider.
Question 9: A client is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin. Which lab
value must the nurse monitor? A. PT B. INR C. aPTT D. Platelet count CORRECT
ANSWER: C. aPTT Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used
to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin. PT and INR monitor warfarin therapy.
Question 10: A nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which task
is appropriate? A. Assessing a new admission B. Administering oral medications C.
Ambulating a stable postoperative client D. Teaching a client about insulin
administration CORRECT ANSWER: C. Ambulating a stable postoperative client
Rationale: Ambulating a stable client is within the AP's scope of practice. Assessment,
medication administration, and teaching are nursing responsibilities.
Question 11: A client with COPD is prescribed oxygen. Which delivery method is
most appropriate? A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min B. Venturi mask at 24% C.
Nasal cannula at 6 L/min D. Simple face mask at 10 L/min CORRECT ANSWER: B.
Venturi mask at 24% Rationale: A Venturi mask delivers a precise, low concentration of
oxygen, preventing the suppression of the hypoxic drive in clients with COPD.
Question 12: A nurse is caring for a client with a severe burn injury. Which fluid is
expected in the first 24 hours? A. D5W B. 0.45% NaCl C. Lactated Ringer's D. 3% NaCl
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Lactated Ringer's Rationale: Lactated Ringer's is the fluid of
choice for burn resuscitation (Parkland formula) as it closely matches extracellular fluid
and helps prevent metabolic acidosis.
Question 13: A client is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. Which medication
should the nurse administer first? A. Diphenhydramine B. Epinephrine C.
Methylprednisolone D. Albuterol CORRECT ANSWER: B. Epinephrine Rationale:
Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. It causes vasoconstriction and
bronchodilation, reversing life-threatening symptoms immediately.
Question 14: A nurse is assessing a client with increased intracranial pressure
(ICP). Which sign is a late indicator? A. Restlessness B. Bradycardia C. Headache D.
, Nausea CORRECT ANSWER: B. Bradycardia Rationale: Bradycardia, along with
widened pulse pressure and irregular respirations (Cushing's triad), is a late and
ominous sign of increased ICP.
Question 15: A client is prescribed warfarin. Which dietary instruction is essential?
A. Increase intake of leafy green vegetables B. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K
C. Avoid all fruits and vegetables D. Take the medication with milk CORRECT ANSWER:
B. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K Rationale: Vitamin K antagonizes
warfarin. Clients should not avoid it entirely but must keep their intake consistent to
maintain stable INR levels.
Question 16: A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction.
Which finding requires intervention? A. Greenish drainage B. Gastric pH of 3 C.
Absent bowel sounds D. Tube secured to the nose CORRECT ANSWER: C. Absent
bowel sounds Rationale: Absent bowel sounds may indicate paralytic ileus or bowel
obstruction, requiring provider notification. Green drainage and low pH are expected.
Question 17: A client with tuberculosis is being discharged. Which statement
indicates understanding? A. "I will stop taking my medication when I feel better." B. "I
will isolate myself in my bedroom for 6 months." C. "I will cover my mouth when I
cough." D. "My family does not need to be tested." CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will cover
my mouth when I cough." Rationale: Covering the mouth prevents airborne
transmission. Medications must be completed fully, and close contacts require testing.
Question 18: A nurse is assessing a client with hypokalemia. Which finding is
expected? A. Hyperactive bowel sounds B. Muscle weakness C. Hypertension D.
Bradycardia CORRECT ANSWER: B. Muscle weakness Rationale: Hypokalemia causes
decreased neuromuscular excitability, leading to muscle weakness, cramps, and
decreased bowel sounds.
Question 19: A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action is a
priority? A. Monitor blood glucose levels B. Change the dressing every 7 days C.
Administer IV push medications through the TPN line D. Increase the infusion rate if
behind schedule CORRECT ANSWER: A. Monitor blood glucose levels Rationale: TPN
contains high concentrations of dextrose, putting the client at high risk for
hyperglycemia. Blood glucose must be monitored regularly.
Question 20: A nurse is caring for a client with a seizure disorder. Which action is
appropriate during a seizure? A. Insert a tongue depressor B. Restrain the client's
limbs C. Turn the client to the side D. Elevate the head of the bed CORRECT ANSWER:
C. Turn the client to the side Rationale: Turning the client to the side promotes
drainage of secretions and prevents aspiration. Nothing should be placed in the mouth,
and limbs should not be restrained.
Question 21: A client with myocardial infarction reports chest pain. Which
medication is administered first? A. Morphine B. Nitroglycerin C. Aspirin D. Metoprolol
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Aspirin Rationale: Aspirin is given immediately to inhibit
