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NRNP 6552 FINAL EXAM REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH CARE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

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NRNP 6552 FINAL EXAM REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH CARE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

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NRNP 6552 FINAL EXAM REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH CARE
QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
NRNP6552: ADVANCED NURSE PRACTICE IN REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH CARE
FINAL EXAM — 2026

NRNP 6552
EXACT FINAL
OFFICIAL EXAM
COUNT: 100REPRODUCTIVE
QUESTIONS | COMPLETEHEALTH
EXAM-STYLECARE
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES | 100% VERIFIED | GRADED A+
QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

This comprehensive final examination document is designed for students enrolled in NRNP6552:
Advanced Nurse Practice in Reproductive Health Care at Walden University. It contains 100
multiple-choice questions spanning eight core domains of reproductive health practice, each
accompanied by detailed rationales explaining the correct answer and distractor analysis. The
questions are aligned with current clinical guidelines from ACOG, CDC, NAMS, and other
authoritative sources, and reflect the advanced practice competencies expected of Women's
Health Nurse Practitioners (WHNPs).
EXAM STRUCTURE
• Total Questions: 100 Multiple-Choice Questions (including Select All That Apply and NGN-style
items)
• Time Allocation: 150 minutes
• Passing Score: 75-80% (varies by institution)
• Question Types: Standard MCQ (4 options), Select All That Apply (SATA), Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN) Bow-Tie, Trend, and Matrix items
• Domains Covered: 8 integrated domains reflecting comprehensive reproductive health practice
• Each question includes a detailed rationale with evidence-based explanations

INTRODUCTION
This examination assesses the advanced practice nurse's ability to apply clinical judgment,
evidence-based guidelines, and patient-centered care principles across the spectrum of
reproductive health. Questions are designed to test not only factual knowledge but also clinical
reasoning, diagnostic interpretation, therapeutic communication, and ethical decision-making.
The NGN-style items specifically assess clinical judgment using the NCSBN Clinical Judgment
Measurement Model (CJMM) including Recognize Cues, Analyze Cues, Prioritize Hypotheses,
Generate Solutions, Take Action, and Evaluate Outcomes.
ANSWER FORMAT
Standard MCQ Questions: Select the single BEST answer from options A, B, C, D. Select All That
Apply (SATA) Questions: Select ALL options that apply to the question; more than one answer
may be correct. NGN Questions: These may use bow-tie, trend, or matrix formats that require
matching or sequential clinical judgment. Correct answers are provided in bold immediately after
each question, followed by a detailed rationale in italic




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EXAMINATION OVERVIEW
Domain Questions Key Topics Weight

Reproductive Anatomy 8 Female Reproductive 8%
& Physiology Review Anatomy, Hormonal
Regulation (HPG Axis),
Menstrual Cycle Physiology,
Fertility Awareness

Contraception 18 Method Selection (LARC, Pills, 18%
Counseling & Patch, Ring, Barrier,
Management Sterilization),
Contraindications (MEC),
Counseling Techniques,
Emergency Contraception,
Shared Decision-Making

STI Screening & 15 CDC STI Guidelines, 15%
Treatment Screening Recommendations,
Partner Notification, PID
Management, HIV PrEP/PEP,
HPV Vaccination

Preconception & 12 Preconception Counseling, 12%
Prenatal Care Risk Assessment, Prenatal
Fundamentals Screening/Diagnostic Testing,
Common Pregnancy
Complications,
Interprofessional
Collaboration

Common 15 PCOS, Endometriosis, Uterine 15%
Gynecological Fibroids, Ovarian Cysts,
Conditions Vulvar/Vaginal Disorders,
Pelvic Pain Evaluation, Cancer
Screening
(Cervical/Breast/Ovarian)

Menstrual Disorders & 12 Abnormal Uterine Bleeding 12%
Management (PALM-COEIN),
Dysmenorrhea, Amenorrhea,
Premenstrual Disorders,
Diagnostic Workup,
Medical/Surgical Management

Menopause & 10 Menopause Diagnosis, 10%
Hormone Therapy Symptom Management,
Hormone Therapy
Indications/Contraindications,
Non-Hormonal Options,
Bone/Cardiovascular Health

Sexual Health, 10 Sexual Dysfunction 10%
LGBTQ+ Care & Assessment, LGBTQ+
Ethical/Legal Affirming Care, Reproductive
Considerations Justice, Informed Consent,
Mandatory Reporting,
Telehealth Considerations




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EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

Domain: Reproductive Anatomy & Physiology Review

Q1: During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, which hormonal change
triggers the selection of the dominant follicle?
A. Rising progesterone levels
B. Rising FSH levels that stimulate granulosa cell aromatase activity
C. Declining LH levels
D. Increasing inhibin B suppression of GnRH
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the follicular phase, rising FSH stimulates granulosa cells in the developing
follicles to produce estrogen via aromatase activity. The follicle with the most FSH receptors
becomes the dominant follicle, while others undergo atresia. Progesterone (A) is primarily a
luteal phase hormone. LH (C) surges at ovulation, not during early follicular phase. Inhibin B
(D) actually suppresses FSH, contributing to atresia of non-dominant follicles, not their
selection.

Q2: The positive feedback loop that triggers the LH surge at ovulation is mediated
by which mechanism?
A. High progesterone levels stimulating GnRH release
B. Rising estrogen levels exceeding a threshold that switches from negative to positive
feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary
C. Declining FSH levels that release inhibition on LH
D. Inhibin A stimulation of GnRH neurons
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When estrogen levels exceed approximately 200 pg/mL for more than 36-48 hours
(achieved by the dominant follicle), the feedback switches from negative to positive, triggering
the LH surge that induces ovulation. This is a critical concept in reproductive physiology.
Progesterone (A) rises after ovulation. FSH (C) does not inhibit LH release directly. Inhibin A
(D) suppresses FSH, not GnRH. Understanding this switch is essential for WHNPs managing
ovulation disorders and fertility.

Q3: Which cervical mucus characteristic indicates the fertile window during the
menstrual cycle?
A. Thick, viscous, and acidic mucus
B. Thin, clear, stretchy (spinnbarkeit) mucus with ferning pattern
C. Scant, sticky, and yellow-tinged mucus
D. Dry mucus with no visible discharge
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Estrogen-dominant cervical mucus during the fertile window is thin, clear, stretchy
(spinnbarkeit), and alkaline, facilitating sperm transport and survival. Ferning pattern on
microscopy confirms estrogen effect. Thick, viscous mucus (A) characterizes the luteal phase
under progesterone dominance and blocks sperm passage. Scant, sticky mucus (C) and dry
mucus (D) are typical of the infertile period. Fertility awareness methods rely on recognizing
these mucus changes.

Q4: Select All That Apply: Select All That Apply: Which hormonal changes
characterize the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle? (Select All That Apply)
A. The corpus luteum secretes progesterone and estrogen
B. FSH levels remain high to maintain the corpus luteum


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C. Progesterone causes the endometrium to become secretory
D. Basal body temperature rises 0.3-0.5°C due to progesterone's thermogenic effect
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: The luteal phase is characterized by the corpus luteum secreting progesterone and
estrogen (A), progesterone converting the endometrium from proliferative to secretory (C), and
the thermogenic effect of progesterone raising basal body temperature (D). FSH levels (B) are
actually suppressed during the luteal phase by the negative feedback of progesterone and
inhibin A on the hypothalamus and pituitary. These luteal phase physiology concepts are
fundamental to fertility awareness and menstrual cycle assessment.

Q5: A patient using basal body temperature (BBT) tracking for fertility awareness
notes a sustained temperature rise for 16 days. What does this MOST likely
indicate?
A. Anovulatory cycle
B. Imminent ovulation
C. Possible early pregnancy
D. Progesterone deficiency
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A sustained BBT rise for ≥16 days is highly suggestive of early pregnancy, as the
corpus luteum is rescued by hCG from the implanting embryo. In a non-pregnant cycle, the
corpus luteum regresses after 12-14 days, and temperature returns to baseline. Anovulatory
cycles (A) show no sustained temperature shift. Imminent ovulation (B) is indicated by the
initial temperature rise, not sustained elevation. Progesterone deficiency (D) would cause a
short luteal phase with early temperature drop.

Q6: During ovarian follicle development, which stage is characterized by the follicle
becoming dependent on FSH for continued growth?
A. Primordial follicle stage
B. Primary follicle stage
C. Early antral (secondary) follicle stage
D. Graafian (preovulatory) follicle stage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The early antral follicle stage is when follicles become FSH-dependent for continued
growth. Primordial follicles (A) are dormant and independent of gonadotropins. Primary
follicles (B) are growing but still gonadotropin-independent. The Graafian follicle (D) is the
mature, preovulatory follicle already selected as dominant. Understanding this transition is
essential because the intercycle rise in FSH rescues a cohort of antral follicles from atresia,
beginning the process that leads to dominant follicle selection.

Q7: The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis involves which sequence of
hormonal signaling?
A. GnRH → LH/FSH → Estrogen/Progesterone → Feedback to ovaries
B. Estrogen → GnRH → LH/FSH → Ovarian stimulation
C. GnRH → Estrogen/Progesterone → LH/FSH → Uterine response
D. FSH → GnRH → LH → Progesterone only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The HPG axis follows the sequence: hypothalamic GnRH stimulates pituitary
LH/FSH release, which acts on the ovaries to produce estrogen/progesterone, which then
provide feedback to both the hypothalamus and pituitary. Estrogen does not directly stimulate
GnRH (B). GnRH does not directly stimulate ovarian hormones (C); LH/FSH are the
intermediaries. FSH does not stimulate GnRH (D); this is reversed. The HPG axis is the


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