AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Test Bank
(2025/2026) | 250+ Verified Questions and
Correct Answers
AORN Periop 101 Practice Exam
1. A patient undergoing a surgical procedure has a history of malignant hyperthermia
(MH). Which of the following inhalation agents is contraindicated?
• A) Sevoflurane
• B) Desflurane
• C) Isoflurane
• D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
All volatile inhalation anesthetics (sevoflurane, desflurane, isoflurane, halothane) are known
triggers for malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients.
2. According to AORN guidelines, what is the maximum safe lead apron weight
recommended to reduce musculoskeletal injury in perioperative personnel?
• A) 5 lbs
• B) 10 lbs
• C) 15 lbs
• D) 20 lbs
Correct Answer: C
AORN recommends that lead aprons weigh no more than 15 lbs to reduce strain on the spine and
shoulders.
3. Surgical hand antisepsis should be performed for which duration when using an
alcohol-based waterless surgical hand rub product that meets FDA requirements?
• A) 1–1.5 minutes
• B) 2–3 minutes
, • C) 5 minutes
• D) 10 minutes
Correct Answer: A
*For alcohol-based waterless surgical hand rubs, the recommended duration is 1 to 1.5 minutes,
following manufacturer instructions.*
4. Which of the following is an example of a Class III (critical) medical device based on
Spaulding classification?
• A) Blood pressure cuff
• B) Endotracheal tube
• C) Stethoscope
• D) Examination table
1. Correct Answer: B
Critical devices enter sterile tissue or vascular system. Endotracheal tubes are critical. Blood
pressure cuffs and stethoscopes are non-critical; exam tables are non-critical surfaces.
5. During a time-out, the surgical team should verify all of the following EXCEPT:
• A) Correct patient identity
• B) Correct procedure and site
• C) Surgeon’s fee schedule
• D) Availability of implants and special equipment
Correct Answer: C
The time-out verifies patient, procedure, site, position, implants, equipment, and relevant images,
but not financial or billing information.
6. Which sterilization method is appropriate for a heat- and moisture-sensitive flexible
endoscope?
• A) Steam under pressure (autoclave)
• B) Ethylene oxide (EtO) gas
• C) Dry heat
, • D) Immediate-use steam sterilization (flash sterilization)
Correct Answer: B
Ethylene oxide is a low-temperature sterilization method suitable for heat- and moisture-sensitive
instruments. Flash sterilization is not recommended for implants or delicate scopes unless
unavoidable.
7. A perioperative nurse is preparing a sterile field. Which action would be a breach of
aseptic technique?
• A) Holding sterile items below waist level
• B) Opening a sterile package away from the body first
• C) Allowing a 1-inch border around the drape edge as non-sterile
• D) Discarding a damp sterile drape before use
Correct Answer: A
*Sterile items held below waist level are considered contaminated. Opening away from the body,
maintaining a 1-inch border, and discarding a damp drape (which wicks bacteria) are correct
practices.*
8. The surgical team is preparing for a procedure on a patient who is HIV positive. Which
of the following is appropriate regarding PPE?
• A) Double gloving is recommended for all surgical procedures regardless of patient
status
• B) Standard precautions alone are sufficient without additional PPE
• C) No mask is needed if the surgical team is vaccinated
• D) Eye protection is optional for the scrub person
Correct Answer: A
AORN recommends double gloving for all surgical procedures to reduce risk of bloodborne
pathogen exposure. Standard precautions apply to all patients, but double gloving adds protection.
9. A surgical fire is most likely to occur in the presence of which triad?
• A) Alcohol-based prep, oxygen, laser
• B) Iodophor solution, nitrogen, scalpel
, • C) Chlorhexidine with alcohol, medical air, suction
• D) Hydrogen peroxide, nitrous oxide, retractor
Correct Answer: A
The fire triad is oxidizer (oxygen/nitrous oxide), ignition source (laser, ESU, light cord), and fuel
(alcohol-based prep, drapes, gauze).
10. According to AORN, the recommended relative humidity range in the operating room
is:
• A) 20% to 40%
• B) 30% to 50%
• C) 20% to 60%
• D) 50% to 70%
Correct Answer: C
AORN Guidelines state OR relative humidity should be maintained between 20% and 60% (some
facilities aim for 30–50%, but the official range is 20–60%).
11. Which of the following describes the correct process for donning a sterile gown and
gloves using the closed-glove technique?
• A) Don gown first, then gloves using open-glove method
• B) Don gloves first, then gown
• C) Don gown, keep hands inside cuffs, then don gloves through the gown cuffs
• D) Gloves are not needed with closed technique
Correct Answer: C
Closed-glove technique: hands remain inside gown cuffs until gloves are applied without exposing
bare skin.
12. A specimen obtained during surgery for frozen section should be:
• A) Placed in formalin immediately
• B) Sent dry to the lab without preservative
• C) Kept on the back table until the case ends
(2025/2026) | 250+ Verified Questions and
Correct Answers
AORN Periop 101 Practice Exam
1. A patient undergoing a surgical procedure has a history of malignant hyperthermia
(MH). Which of the following inhalation agents is contraindicated?
• A) Sevoflurane
• B) Desflurane
• C) Isoflurane
• D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
All volatile inhalation anesthetics (sevoflurane, desflurane, isoflurane, halothane) are known
triggers for malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients.
2. According to AORN guidelines, what is the maximum safe lead apron weight
recommended to reduce musculoskeletal injury in perioperative personnel?
• A) 5 lbs
• B) 10 lbs
• C) 15 lbs
• D) 20 lbs
Correct Answer: C
AORN recommends that lead aprons weigh no more than 15 lbs to reduce strain on the spine and
shoulders.
3. Surgical hand antisepsis should be performed for which duration when using an
alcohol-based waterless surgical hand rub product that meets FDA requirements?
• A) 1–1.5 minutes
• B) 2–3 minutes
, • C) 5 minutes
• D) 10 minutes
Correct Answer: A
*For alcohol-based waterless surgical hand rubs, the recommended duration is 1 to 1.5 minutes,
following manufacturer instructions.*
4. Which of the following is an example of a Class III (critical) medical device based on
Spaulding classification?
• A) Blood pressure cuff
• B) Endotracheal tube
• C) Stethoscope
• D) Examination table
1. Correct Answer: B
Critical devices enter sterile tissue or vascular system. Endotracheal tubes are critical. Blood
pressure cuffs and stethoscopes are non-critical; exam tables are non-critical surfaces.
5. During a time-out, the surgical team should verify all of the following EXCEPT:
• A) Correct patient identity
• B) Correct procedure and site
• C) Surgeon’s fee schedule
• D) Availability of implants and special equipment
Correct Answer: C
The time-out verifies patient, procedure, site, position, implants, equipment, and relevant images,
but not financial or billing information.
6. Which sterilization method is appropriate for a heat- and moisture-sensitive flexible
endoscope?
• A) Steam under pressure (autoclave)
• B) Ethylene oxide (EtO) gas
• C) Dry heat
, • D) Immediate-use steam sterilization (flash sterilization)
Correct Answer: B
Ethylene oxide is a low-temperature sterilization method suitable for heat- and moisture-sensitive
instruments. Flash sterilization is not recommended for implants or delicate scopes unless
unavoidable.
7. A perioperative nurse is preparing a sterile field. Which action would be a breach of
aseptic technique?
• A) Holding sterile items below waist level
• B) Opening a sterile package away from the body first
• C) Allowing a 1-inch border around the drape edge as non-sterile
• D) Discarding a damp sterile drape before use
Correct Answer: A
*Sterile items held below waist level are considered contaminated. Opening away from the body,
maintaining a 1-inch border, and discarding a damp drape (which wicks bacteria) are correct
practices.*
8. The surgical team is preparing for a procedure on a patient who is HIV positive. Which
of the following is appropriate regarding PPE?
• A) Double gloving is recommended for all surgical procedures regardless of patient
status
• B) Standard precautions alone are sufficient without additional PPE
• C) No mask is needed if the surgical team is vaccinated
• D) Eye protection is optional for the scrub person
Correct Answer: A
AORN recommends double gloving for all surgical procedures to reduce risk of bloodborne
pathogen exposure. Standard precautions apply to all patients, but double gloving adds protection.
9. A surgical fire is most likely to occur in the presence of which triad?
• A) Alcohol-based prep, oxygen, laser
• B) Iodophor solution, nitrogen, scalpel
, • C) Chlorhexidine with alcohol, medical air, suction
• D) Hydrogen peroxide, nitrous oxide, retractor
Correct Answer: A
The fire triad is oxidizer (oxygen/nitrous oxide), ignition source (laser, ESU, light cord), and fuel
(alcohol-based prep, drapes, gauze).
10. According to AORN, the recommended relative humidity range in the operating room
is:
• A) 20% to 40%
• B) 30% to 50%
• C) 20% to 60%
• D) 50% to 70%
Correct Answer: C
AORN Guidelines state OR relative humidity should be maintained between 20% and 60% (some
facilities aim for 30–50%, but the official range is 20–60%).
11. Which of the following describes the correct process for donning a sterile gown and
gloves using the closed-glove technique?
• A) Don gown first, then gloves using open-glove method
• B) Don gloves first, then gown
• C) Don gown, keep hands inside cuffs, then don gloves through the gown cuffs
• D) Gloves are not needed with closed technique
Correct Answer: C
Closed-glove technique: hands remain inside gown cuffs until gloves are applied without exposing
bare skin.
12. A specimen obtained during surgery for frozen section should be:
• A) Placed in formalin immediately
• B) Sent dry to the lab without preservative
• C) Kept on the back table until the case ends
