QUESTIONS COMPLETE WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS
1. A 45-year-old unrestrained driver involved in a high-speed MVC has a GCS of
14, BP 110/70, HR 110, and RR 24. On primary survey, you note equal breath
sounds but paradoxical chest wall movement. What is the priority intervention?
A. Needle decompression of the left chest
B. Assisted ventilation with BVM and prepare for definitive airway
C. Apply a binder to the chest wall
D. Obtain a chest X-ray
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Paradoxical chest movement indicates flail chest. The priority is to
support ventilation (BVM) and prepare for intubation if respiratory fatigue
develops. Chest binders are not recommended; needle decompression is for
tension pneumothorax; X-ray can wait.
2. A 32-year-old female falls 15 feet from a ladder. She is alert with HR 130, BP
90/60, RR 26. FAST exam shows fluid in Morrison’s pouch. Which of the
following is the BEST next step?
A. CT abdomen/pelvis with IV contrast
B. Blood transfusion and immediate laparotomy
C. Observation with serial abdominal exams
D. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Positive FAST in a hypotensive patient after a fall suggests intra-
abdominal bleeding. The patient is hemodynamically unstable, so immediate
laparotomy (after blood transfusion) is indicated, not CT or observation.
,3. A restrained 19-year-old in a rear-end collision complains of neck pain and
bilateral hand weakness. His BP is 85/50, HR 55, and he is warm and
vasodilated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D. Obstructive shock
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Neurogenic shock from cervical spine injury causes hypotension with
bradycardia and warm skin due to loss of sympathetic tone. Hypovolemic shock
would have tachycardia; cardiogenic has signs of failure; obstructive has JVD.
4. A 67-year-old on warfarin falls and hits his head. Initial GCS is 15, then 30
minutes later GCS is 13 with a fixed and dilated right pupil. Which is the priority?
A. CT head without contrast
B. Administer vitamin K 10 mg IV
C. Hyperventilate to PaCO2 25 mmHg
D. Immediate burr hole
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Acute deterioration with pupillary changes suggests expanding
intracranial hematoma. CT head must be obtained emergently. Hyperventilation is
temporizing but not priority; vitamin K takes hours; burr hole only if CT confirms
hematoma and no neurosurgeon available.
5. A 28-year-old male stabbed in the right chest has diminished breath sounds
and JVD. BP 80/40, HR 120. Needle decompression at the 2nd intercostal space,
midclavicular line is performed with no improvement. What should you do
next?
A. Repeat needle decompression on the left
B. Chest tube thoracostomy
C. Perform pericardiocentesis
,D. Obtain a chest X-ray
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: JVD + hypotension + penetrating chest injury suggests cardiac
tamponade. Needle decompression failed to improve, so consider tamponade and
proceed to pericardiocentesis or thoracotomy.
6. A 55-year-old unrestrained passenger in a rollover crash has ecchymosis over
the lower abdomen, HR 115, BP 100/70, and a positive FAST for free fluid. What
is the next best step?
A. Repeated FAST in 30 minutes
B. CT abdomen with IV contrast
C. Serial abdominal exams
D. Transfer for angiography
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The patient is hemodynamically borderline stable. FAST positive in
blunt trauma warrants CT abdomen to identify specific injuries (e.g., liver, spleen,
bladder rupture) unless unstable for OR.
7. A 40-year-old has a GCS of 8 after a motorcycle crash. He is intubated, and you
note unequal breath sounds with absent left breath sounds and hypotension.
What is the most likely cause?
A. Left hemothorax
B. Tension pneumothorax
C. Atelectasis
D. Mainstem intubation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: After intubation, unequal breath sounds with hypotension suggest
tension pneumothorax (if right mainstem intubation, breath sounds may be
absent on left but equal on right? — unequal with hypotension is tension until
proven otherwise). Mainstem intubation typically causes absent left sounds but
not hypotension as acutely.
, 8 (revised). A 23-year-old with a femur fracture develops sudden dyspnea,
petechiae on chest, and confusion 24 hours later. Which of the following is most
likely?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Fat embolism syndrome
C. Transfusion reaction
D. Meningitis
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Classic triad of fat embolism syndrome: respiratory distress,
petechiae, neurological changes, typically 24–72 hours after long bone fracture.
9. A 78-year-old female falls from standing and has a GCS of 14, BP 145/85, HR
95. She takes aspirin and clopidogrel. Head CT shows a small subdural
hematoma. What is the best next step?
A. Administer platelets
B. Discharge with close follow-up
C. Admit for observation and repeat CT in 6 hours
D. Immediate burr hole
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Small SDH in elderly on antiplatelets needs admission and repeat
imaging to watch for expansion. Platelet transfusion not routinely indicated for
isolated small SDH without active bleeding.
10. A 30-year-old pedestrian struck by a car has a deformed right thigh, BP
70/40, HR 135 after 2L crystalloid. What is the best next step?
A. Pelvic binder and FAST
B. CT abdomen
C. Whole blood transfusion
D. Femoral traction splint