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NUR2513/NUR 2513 Final Exam V1 | Maternal-Child Nursing Q&A with Rationale | Rasmussen University

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NUR2513/NUR 2513 Final Exam V1 | Maternal-Child Nursing Q&A with Rationale | Rasmussen University

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NUR2513/NUR 2513 Final Exam V1 |
Maternal-Child Nursing Q&A with
Rationale | Rasmussen University
1. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 34 weeks gestation who presents with sudden,

painless vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

A. Abruptio placentae


B. Hydatidiform mole


C. Cervical insufficiency


D. Placenta previa


Correct Answer: D


Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by the sudden onset of painless, bright red

vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester. Unlike placental abruption, which

involves painful bleeding and uterine rigidity, placenta previa is typically painless because

the placenta is simply covering the internal os. The nurse must avoid performing a vaginal

exam until the placental location is confirmed by ultrasound to prevent hemorrhage.


2. Which of the following interventions is the priority for a nurse caring for a newborn

immediately after birth?

A. Administering Vitamin K intramuscularly


B. Applying erythromycin ophthalmic ointment

,C. Drying the infant and maintaining thermoregulation


D. Performing the initial physical assessment


Correct Answer: C


Rationale: Thermoregulation is a critical priority because newborns are highly susceptible

to heat loss through evaporation and convection. Cold stress can lead to increased oxygen

consumption and metabolic acidosis, which complicates the transition to extrauterine life.

While medications and assessments are important, drying the skin and providing skin-to-

skin contact or a radiant warmer must happen first to stabilize the infant.


3. A client is in the first stage of labor and is 6 cm dilated. The nurse notes late decelerations

on the fetal heart rate monitor. What should be the nurse’s first action?

A. Assist the client to a side-lying position


B. Increase the IV oxytocin infusion rate


C. Prepare for an immediate vaginal delivery


D. Perform a sterile vaginal examination


Correct Answer: A


Rationale: Late decelerations are indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, meaning the

fetus is not receiving adequate oxygen during contractions. Repositioning the mother to

her side (left or right) relieves pressure on the inferior vena cava and improves blood flow

to the placenta. The nurse should also discontinue oxytocin if it is running and provide

supplemental oxygen to maximize fetal oxygenation.

,4. A postpartum client who is breastfeeding complains of nipple soreness. Which

recommendation by the nurse is most appropriate?

A. Ensure the infant’s mouth covers the entire nipple and most of the areola


B. Apply a plastic-backed breast pad to keep the area dry


C. Use soap and water to clean the nipples twice daily


D. Limit breastfeeding to 5 minutes per side until healed


Correct Answer: A


Rationale: Incorrect latch is the most common cause of nipple trauma and soreness in

breastfeeding mothers. A proper latch ensures that the nipple is positioned deep in the

infant’s mouth against the soft palate, preventing friction. The nurse should assess the

breastfeeding technique and encourage the mother to let her nipples air dry after feedings.


5. A nurse is evaluating an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation

is most characteristic of this condition?

A. Currant jelly-like stools


B. Abdominal distention and bile-stained emesis


C. Projectile vomiting after feedings


D. Steatorrhea and failure to thrive


Correct Answer: C

, Rationale: Projectile vomiting is the hallmark sign of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to

the mechanical obstruction of the gastric outlet. This vomiting typically occurs shortly after

feeding and does not contain bile because the obstruction is proximal to the bile duct.

Additionally, a palpable olive-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant of the

abdomen during physical assessment.


6. What is the primary purpose of administering Magnesium Sulfate to a client with

preeclampsia?

A. To lower the blood pressure to a normal range


B. To stimulate the production of fetal surfactant


C. To increase urinary output and reduce edema


D. To prevent the occurrence of seizures (eclampsia)


Correct Answer: D


Rationale: Magnesium Sulfate is a central nervous system depressant used primarily as an

anticonvulsant in clients with preeclampsia. While it may have a mild vasodilatory effect

that slightly lowers blood pressure, its clinical purpose is to prevent the transition to

eclampsia. Nurses must monitor the client closely for toxicity signs, such as loss of deep

tendon reflexes or respiratory depression.


7. A child is diagnosed with Tetralogy of Fallot and experiences a ‘Tet spell’ during a blood

draw. What is the nurse’s immediate priority?

A. Administer a dose of Digoxin

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