NUR2513/NUR 2513 Exam 1 V1 | Maternal
Child Nursing Q&A with Rationale |
Rasmussen University
1. A client provides her last menstrual period (LMP) as beginning on January 15th. Using
Naegele’s Rule, what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. October 15th
B. September 22nd
C. November 22nd
D. October 22nd
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the EDD using Naegele’s Rule, one must subtract 3 months from the
LMP and add 7 days. Starting with January 15th, subtracting 3 months takes us back to
October, and adding 7 days to the 15th results in the 22nd. This calculation is a
fundamental skill for establishing the baseline for prenatal care management.
2. A nurse is reviewing a client’s obstetric history: she has one living child born at 39 weeks,
one miscarriage at 12 weeks, and is currently pregnant. What is her GTPAL?
A. G2, T1, P0, A1, L1
B. G3, T1, P0, A1, L1
C. G3, T2, P0, A0, L1
,D. G3, T1, P1, A1, L1
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gravida (G) represents the total number of pregnancies, which is 3 in this case
(current, living child, and miscarriage). Term (T) is for births at 37 weeks or more, which is
1. Preterm (P) is 0, Abortions (A) is 1 (the miscarriage before 20 weeks), and Living (L) is 1.
3. Which of the following findings is considered a ‘Positive’ sign of pregnancy?
A. Positive serum pregnancy test
B. Chadwick’s sign
C. Fetal heart tones heard via Doppler
D. Quickening felt by the mother
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can only be attributed to the
presence of a fetus, such as fetal heart sounds, visualization by ultrasound, or palpable fetal
movement by a clinician. Chadwick’s sign and pregnancy tests are considered probable
signs as they could be caused by other conditions. Quickening is a subjective presumptive
sign reported by the mother.
4. During a routine prenatal visit at 20 weeks gestation, where should the nurse expect to
palpate the fundus?
A. At the level of the symphysis pubis
, B. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus
C. At the level of the umbilicus
D. At the level of the xiphoid process
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: By 20 weeks of gestation, the fundal height typically reaches the level of the
umbilicus in a normal singleton pregnancy. This measurement serves as a clinical indicator
of appropriate fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume. Discrepancies in fundal height may
warrant further investigation via ultrasound to assess for issues like intrauterine growth
restriction.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving intravenous Magnesium
Sulfate. Which finding should be reported immediately?
A. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
B. Urine output of 40 mL per hour
C. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
D. Feeling of warmth and flushing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A respiratory rate below 12 breaths per minute is a critical sign of magnesium
toxicity and CNS depression. The nurse must also monitor for the loss of deep tendon
Child Nursing Q&A with Rationale |
Rasmussen University
1. A client provides her last menstrual period (LMP) as beginning on January 15th. Using
Naegele’s Rule, what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. October 15th
B. September 22nd
C. November 22nd
D. October 22nd
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the EDD using Naegele’s Rule, one must subtract 3 months from the
LMP and add 7 days. Starting with January 15th, subtracting 3 months takes us back to
October, and adding 7 days to the 15th results in the 22nd. This calculation is a
fundamental skill for establishing the baseline for prenatal care management.
2. A nurse is reviewing a client’s obstetric history: she has one living child born at 39 weeks,
one miscarriage at 12 weeks, and is currently pregnant. What is her GTPAL?
A. G2, T1, P0, A1, L1
B. G3, T1, P0, A1, L1
C. G3, T2, P0, A0, L1
,D. G3, T1, P1, A1, L1
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gravida (G) represents the total number of pregnancies, which is 3 in this case
(current, living child, and miscarriage). Term (T) is for births at 37 weeks or more, which is
1. Preterm (P) is 0, Abortions (A) is 1 (the miscarriage before 20 weeks), and Living (L) is 1.
3. Which of the following findings is considered a ‘Positive’ sign of pregnancy?
A. Positive serum pregnancy test
B. Chadwick’s sign
C. Fetal heart tones heard via Doppler
D. Quickening felt by the mother
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can only be attributed to the
presence of a fetus, such as fetal heart sounds, visualization by ultrasound, or palpable fetal
movement by a clinician. Chadwick’s sign and pregnancy tests are considered probable
signs as they could be caused by other conditions. Quickening is a subjective presumptive
sign reported by the mother.
4. During a routine prenatal visit at 20 weeks gestation, where should the nurse expect to
palpate the fundus?
A. At the level of the symphysis pubis
, B. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus
C. At the level of the umbilicus
D. At the level of the xiphoid process
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: By 20 weeks of gestation, the fundal height typically reaches the level of the
umbilicus in a normal singleton pregnancy. This measurement serves as a clinical indicator
of appropriate fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume. Discrepancies in fundal height may
warrant further investigation via ultrasound to assess for issues like intrauterine growth
restriction.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving intravenous Magnesium
Sulfate. Which finding should be reported immediately?
A. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
B. Urine output of 40 mL per hour
C. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
D. Feeling of warmth and flushing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A respiratory rate below 12 breaths per minute is a critical sign of magnesium
toxicity and CNS depression. The nurse must also monitor for the loss of deep tendon
