NUR2063/NUR 2063 Exam 4 V2 |
Essentials of Pathophysiology Q&A with
Rationale | Rasmussen University
1. A patient presents with a blood glucose level of 650 mg/dL, arterial pH of 7.1, and positive
ketones in the urine. Which condition is most likely occurring?
A. Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State (HHS)
B. Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
C. Diabetes Insipidus
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diabetic Ketoacidosis is characterized by hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis,
and the presence of ketones. In DKA, the lack of insulin leads to the breakdown of fats for
energy, which produces acidic ketones. HHS typically presents with higher glucose levels
but lacks the significant ketosis and acidosis seen here.
2. Which pathophysiological mechanism best describes the development of Type 1 Diabetes
Mellitus?
A. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
B. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues
C. Excessive glucagon secretion from alpha cells
,D. Down-regulation of insulin receptors
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Type 1 Diabetes is primarily an autoimmune disease where the body’s immune
system attacks and destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the islets of Langerhans.
This leads to an absolute insulin deficiency, requiring lifelong exogenous insulin
replacement. Unlike Type 2, it is not primarily driven by lifestyle factors or insulin
resistance.
3. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is found to have a low hemoglobin level. What
is the primary cause of anemia in this patient?
A. Chronic blood loss during hemodialysis
B. Iron deficiency due to poor diet
C. Shortened lifespan of red blood cells
D. Inadequate production of erythropoietin by the kidneys
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The kidneys are responsible for producing erythropoietin, a hormone that
stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. In CKD, the functional mass of the
kidney decreases, leading to a deficiency in this hormone. Consequently, the bone marrow
produces fewer RBCs, resulting in normochromic, normocytic anemia.
, 4. Which of the following clinical manifestations is considered a hallmark sign of Cushing’s
Syndrome?
A. Centripetal (trunkal) obesity and moon face
B. Weight loss and muscle wasting
C. Hyperpigmentation of the skin
D. Hypotension and bradycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cushing’s Syndrome results from chronic exposure to excessive circulating
glucocorticoids like cortisol. This excess leads to characteristic fat redistribution, resulting
in a moon face, buffalo hump, and trunkal obesity. Other signs include thin extremities due
to muscle wasting and the presence of purple striae on the abdomen.
5. What is the primary underlying cause of esophageal varices in patients with liver cirrhosis?
A. Chronic gastric acid reflux
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Portal hypertension
D. H. pylori infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins that develop as a result of
portal hypertension. When blood flow through the scarred liver is obstructed, pressure
Essentials of Pathophysiology Q&A with
Rationale | Rasmussen University
1. A patient presents with a blood glucose level of 650 mg/dL, arterial pH of 7.1, and positive
ketones in the urine. Which condition is most likely occurring?
A. Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State (HHS)
B. Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
C. Diabetes Insipidus
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diabetic Ketoacidosis is characterized by hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis,
and the presence of ketones. In DKA, the lack of insulin leads to the breakdown of fats for
energy, which produces acidic ketones. HHS typically presents with higher glucose levels
but lacks the significant ketosis and acidosis seen here.
2. Which pathophysiological mechanism best describes the development of Type 1 Diabetes
Mellitus?
A. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
B. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues
C. Excessive glucagon secretion from alpha cells
,D. Down-regulation of insulin receptors
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Type 1 Diabetes is primarily an autoimmune disease where the body’s immune
system attacks and destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the islets of Langerhans.
This leads to an absolute insulin deficiency, requiring lifelong exogenous insulin
replacement. Unlike Type 2, it is not primarily driven by lifestyle factors or insulin
resistance.
3. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is found to have a low hemoglobin level. What
is the primary cause of anemia in this patient?
A. Chronic blood loss during hemodialysis
B. Iron deficiency due to poor diet
C. Shortened lifespan of red blood cells
D. Inadequate production of erythropoietin by the kidneys
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The kidneys are responsible for producing erythropoietin, a hormone that
stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. In CKD, the functional mass of the
kidney decreases, leading to a deficiency in this hormone. Consequently, the bone marrow
produces fewer RBCs, resulting in normochromic, normocytic anemia.
, 4. Which of the following clinical manifestations is considered a hallmark sign of Cushing’s
Syndrome?
A. Centripetal (trunkal) obesity and moon face
B. Weight loss and muscle wasting
C. Hyperpigmentation of the skin
D. Hypotension and bradycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cushing’s Syndrome results from chronic exposure to excessive circulating
glucocorticoids like cortisol. This excess leads to characteristic fat redistribution, resulting
in a moon face, buffalo hump, and trunkal obesity. Other signs include thin extremities due
to muscle wasting and the presence of purple striae on the abdomen.
5. What is the primary underlying cause of esophageal varices in patients with liver cirrhosis?
A. Chronic gastric acid reflux
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Portal hypertension
D. H. pylori infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins that develop as a result of
portal hypertension. When blood flow through the scarred liver is obstructed, pressure
