ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam –
100 Questions & Rationales (2026/2027) 100
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+
Management of Care (Questions 1–15)
Q1: A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should be seen first?
A: Client with chest pain and diaphoresis
Rationale: Chest pain + diaphoresis suggests acute myocardial infarction. Airway, breathing,
circulation (ABC) priorities.
Q2: A client with do-not-resuscitate (DNR) orders becomes pulseless. What action should the
nurse take?
A: Provide comfort measures only
Rationale: DNR means no CPR. The nurse should provide end-of-life care, not initiate
resuscitation.
Q3: A charge nurse is assigning clients. Which client should be assigned to an RN rather than an
LPN?
A: Client with chest tube and continuous bubbling
Rationale: Complex unstable patients require RN assessment and intervention. LPNs care for
stable clients.
Q4: A nurse witnesses a colleague administering medication without verifying client identity.
What action is most appropriate?
A: Report the event to the nurse manager
Rationale: This is a medication error and violation of safety. Reporting follows chain of
command.
Q5: A client refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. What should the nurse do?
A: Respect the refusal and notify the provider
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to refuse treatment, even if life-saving.
Q6: A nurse is delegating vital signs to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which client
cannot be delegated?
, A: Client with unstable blood pressure on IV vasopressors
Rationale: Unstable clients require RN assessment. Stable clients can be delegated to UAP.
Q7: A hospital is implementing a new fall prevention protocol. Which action demonstrates
effective leadership?
A: Educating all staff on the protocol before implementation
Rationale: Education ensures competency and compliance before practice change.
Q8: A nurse identifies a sentinel event. What is the first action?
A: Ensure client safety and notify the provider
Rationale: Immediate client stabilization first, then root cause analysis and reporting.
Q9: A client requests a second surgical opinion. What is the nurse’s best response?
A: “I will help you get another opinion.”
Rationale: Supporting client autonomy is essential. The nurse advocates for client rights.
Q10: A nurse is preparing for a Joint Commission survey. Which finding requires immediate
correction?
A: Expired emergency medications in the crash cart
Rationale: Expired emergency medications are a safety risk and accreditation violation.
Q11: A client with an advance directive states, “I changed my mind about life support.” What
should the nurse do?
A: Document the client’s statement and notify the provider
Rationale: Advance directives can be changed by a competent client at any time.
Q12: A nurse is triaging after a mass casualty event. Which client should receive care first?
A: Client with severe bleeding from the thigh
Rationale: Color tag system: Red (immediate/life-threatening) before Yellow (delayed) or Green
(minor).
Q13: A nurse notes a colleague documenting care that was not provided. What action is
required?
A: Report the colleague to the nurse manager
Rationale: Falsifying records is illegal and unethical. The nurse has a duty to report.
Q14: A nurse is assigning rooms for four clients. Which client needs a private room?
A: Client with airborne precautions (tuberculosis)
Rationale: Airborne infections require negative-pressure private rooms.
Q15: A client leaves against medical advice (AMA). What should the nurse do first?
A: Have the client sign an AMA form
100 Questions & Rationales (2026/2027) 100
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+
Management of Care (Questions 1–15)
Q1: A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should be seen first?
A: Client with chest pain and diaphoresis
Rationale: Chest pain + diaphoresis suggests acute myocardial infarction. Airway, breathing,
circulation (ABC) priorities.
Q2: A client with do-not-resuscitate (DNR) orders becomes pulseless. What action should the
nurse take?
A: Provide comfort measures only
Rationale: DNR means no CPR. The nurse should provide end-of-life care, not initiate
resuscitation.
Q3: A charge nurse is assigning clients. Which client should be assigned to an RN rather than an
LPN?
A: Client with chest tube and continuous bubbling
Rationale: Complex unstable patients require RN assessment and intervention. LPNs care for
stable clients.
Q4: A nurse witnesses a colleague administering medication without verifying client identity.
What action is most appropriate?
A: Report the event to the nurse manager
Rationale: This is a medication error and violation of safety. Reporting follows chain of
command.
Q5: A client refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. What should the nurse do?
A: Respect the refusal and notify the provider
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to refuse treatment, even if life-saving.
Q6: A nurse is delegating vital signs to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which client
cannot be delegated?
, A: Client with unstable blood pressure on IV vasopressors
Rationale: Unstable clients require RN assessment. Stable clients can be delegated to UAP.
Q7: A hospital is implementing a new fall prevention protocol. Which action demonstrates
effective leadership?
A: Educating all staff on the protocol before implementation
Rationale: Education ensures competency and compliance before practice change.
Q8: A nurse identifies a sentinel event. What is the first action?
A: Ensure client safety and notify the provider
Rationale: Immediate client stabilization first, then root cause analysis and reporting.
Q9: A client requests a second surgical opinion. What is the nurse’s best response?
A: “I will help you get another opinion.”
Rationale: Supporting client autonomy is essential. The nurse advocates for client rights.
Q10: A nurse is preparing for a Joint Commission survey. Which finding requires immediate
correction?
A: Expired emergency medications in the crash cart
Rationale: Expired emergency medications are a safety risk and accreditation violation.
Q11: A client with an advance directive states, “I changed my mind about life support.” What
should the nurse do?
A: Document the client’s statement and notify the provider
Rationale: Advance directives can be changed by a competent client at any time.
Q12: A nurse is triaging after a mass casualty event. Which client should receive care first?
A: Client with severe bleeding from the thigh
Rationale: Color tag system: Red (immediate/life-threatening) before Yellow (delayed) or Green
(minor).
Q13: A nurse notes a colleague documenting care that was not provided. What action is
required?
A: Report the colleague to the nurse manager
Rationale: Falsifying records is illegal and unethical. The nurse has a duty to report.
Q14: A nurse is assigning rooms for four clients. Which client needs a private room?
A: Client with airborne precautions (tuberculosis)
Rationale: Airborne infections require negative-pressure private rooms.
Q15: A client leaves against medical advice (AMA). What should the nurse do first?
A: Have the client sign an AMA form
