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ATI RN 2026 Fundamentals Proctored Exam: ACTUAL EXAM TESTBANK - 3 VERSIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS FINAL EXAM BUNDLE 2026/2027 (REAL EXAM QUESTIONS)

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: A nurse manager of a med-surg unit is assigning care responsibilities for the oncoming shift. A client is awaiting transfer back to the unit from the PACU following thoracic surgery. To which staff member should the nurse assign this client? • A) Charge nurse • B) Registered Nurse (RN) • C) Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) • D) Assistive Personnel (AP) Correct Answer: B) RN Rationale: A client returning from major surgery (such as thoracic surgery) is considered potentially unstable and requires comprehensive assessments, complex clinical decisionmaking, and the establishment of an individualized nursing plan of care. According to delegation guidelines, these essential responsibilities cannot be delegated to an LPN or AP and must be completed by an RN. 2. Intentional Torts: Assault Q: A nurse observes an Assistive Personnel (AP) reprimanding a client for not using the urinal properly. The AP tells him she will put a diaper on him if he does not use the urinal more carefully next time. Which of the following torts is the AP committing? • A) Assault • B) Battery • C) False imprisonment • D) Invasion of privacy Correct Answer: A) Assault Rationale: Assault is an intentional tort that occurs when a person's words or actions create an imminent threat or reasonable apprehension of unwanted, harmful, or offensive physical contact. Because the AP is verbally threatening the client with humiliating restrictions, it constitutes assault. Battery requires actual, unauthorized physical contact. 3. Intentional Torts: False Imprisonment via Chemical Restraint Q: An adult client who is competent tells the nurse that he is thinking about leaving the hospital against medical advice (AMA). The nurse believes that this is not in the client's best interest, so she administers a PRN sedative medication that the client has not requested along with his usual medications. Which of the following torts has the nurse committed? • A) Assault • B) False imprisonment • C) Negligence • D) Breach of confidentiality Correct Answer: B) False imprisonment Rationale: Administering an unrequested sedative medication to an alert, legally competent individual for the sole purpose of restricting their freedom of movement or preventing them from leaving a facility constitutes an unauthorized chemical restraint. Doing so without clinical justification or client consent fulfills the legal definition of false imprisonment. 4. Understanding Advance Directives Q: A client who will undergo neurosurgery the following week tells the nurse in the surgeon's office that he will prepare his advance directives before he goes to the hospital. Which of the following statements by the client indicates to the nurse that he understands advance directives? • A) "I'd rather have my brother make decisions for me, but I know it has to be my wife." • B) "I know they won't go ahead with the surgery unless I prepare these forms." • C) "I plan to write that I don't want them to keep me on a breathing machine." • D) "I will get my regular doctor to approve my plan before I hand it in at the hospital." Correct Answer: C) "I plan to write that I don't want them to keep me on a breathing machine." Rationale: Advance directives allow competent individuals to explicitly state their choices regarding future life-sustaining medical interventions (such as mechanical ventilation) in the event that they become unable to communicate or make decisions for themselves. Advance directives are voluntary, can designate any proxy of choice, and do not require a physician's approval to be valid. 5. Nursing Role in Informed Consent Q: A client is about to undergo an elective surgical procedure. Which of the following actions are appropriate for the nurse who is providing preoperative care regarding informed consent? (Select all that apply.) * A) Make sure the surgeon obtained the client's consent • B) Witness the client's signature on the consent form • C) Explain the risks and benefits of the procedure • D) Describe the consequences of choosing not to have the surgery • E) Tell the client about alternatives to having the surgery Correct Answers: A) and B) Rationale: The nurse's role in informed consent is limited to serving as a witness to the client's signature, confirming the client appears competent, and verifying that the surgeon has already obtained consent. Explaining risks, benefits, consequences of refusal, and alternative options is the non-delegable duty of the performing provider/surgeon. 6. Reporting Impaired Coworkers Q: A nurse has noticed several occasions in the past week when another nurse on the unit seemed drowsy and unable to focus on the issue at hand. Today, she found the nurse asleep in a chair in the break room when she was not on break. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? • A) Remind the nurse that safe client care is a priority on the unit • B) Ask others on the team whether they have observed the same behavior • C) Report observations to the nurse manager on the unit • D) Conclude that her coworker's fatigue is not her problem to solve Correct Answer: C) Report observations to the nurse manager on the unit Rationale: Every nurse has a strict professional, ethical, and legal obligation to safeguard clients from potential harm. If a colleague displays signs of impairment, extreme fatigue, or substance abuse that could compromise clinical safety, the observations must be reported immediately up the chain of command to the unit manager. 7. Change-of-Shift Report Components Q: A nurse is preparing information for a change-of-shift report. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report? • A) The client's total intake and output for the previous shift • B) The client's blood pressure from the previous day • C) A bone scan that is scheduled for today • D) The complete medication routine from the medication administration record Correct Answer: C) A bone scan that is scheduled for today Rationale: A change-of-shift report should focus on current, pertinent, and upcoming care details. Noting a scheduled diagnostic procedure like a bone scan is critical because the oncoming shift must modify care routines, prepare the client, or coordinate transportation off the unit. Routine historical data or standard medication schedules are already accessible in the medical record. 8. Documentation of Unwitnessed Client Events Q: A nurse enters a client's room and finds him sitting in his chair. He states, "I fell in the shower, but I got myself back up and into my chair." How should the nurse document this in the client's chart? • A) The client fell in the shower. • B) The client states he fell in the shower and was able to get himself back into his chair. • C) The nurse should not document this info because she did not witness the fall. • D) The client fell in the shower and is now resting comfortably. Correct Answer: B) The client states he fell in the shower and was able to get himself back into his chair. Rationale: When documenting an event that was not directly witnessed by the medical staff, the nurse must record the information as subjective data, using direct quotes or clear attributions to the client's statements. Documenting it as an absolute objective fact when unwitnessed is inaccurate. All clinically significant events must be recorded. 9. Legal Guidelines for Medical Documentation Q: A nursing instructor is reviewing medical documentation guidelines with a group of nursing students. Which of the following legal rules should they follow when entering records into a client's chart? (Select all that apply.) * A) Cover errors with correction fluid, and write in the correct info • B) Put the date and time on all entries • C) Document objective data, leaving out personal opinions • D) Use as many abbreviations as possible • E) Wait until the end of the shift to document all entries at once Correct Answers: B) and C) Rationale: Accurate medical charts require clear dating and timing of all entries, and strictly factual, objective data devoid of speculative personal opinions. Correction fluid is illegal as it alters a legal document; errors should have a single line drawn through them. Abbreviations should be restricted to approved lists to avoid mistakes, and documentation should happen progressively rather than being delayed until the end of a shift.

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Institution
Mental Health
Course
Mental health

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• ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2026:
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED
ANSWERS - PASS FIRST ATTEMPT
GUARANTEED UPDATED QUESTIONS AND
100% ACCURATE ANSWERS | HIGH-LEVEL
EXIT EXAM
Q: A nurse is collecting data from a client who is newly admitted to a mental health facility.
Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

• A) Establish rapport with the client

• B) Determine the client’s coping strategies

• C) Identify the client’s perception of her mental health status

• D) Review the client’s medical history

Correct Answer: C) Identify the client’s perception of her mental health status

Rationale: According to the nursing process, data collection begins with the client’s own
perspective. Understanding the client’s view of her mental health is the priority to guide
individualized care planning.

2. Altered Levels of Consciousness: Stupor

Q: A nurse is told during change-of-shift report that a client is stuporous. When assessing the
client, which finding should the nurse expect?

• A) The client responds verbally but is confused

• B) The client is alert but drowsy

• C) The client arouses briefly in response to a sternal rub

• D) The client has purposeful movement in response to stimuli

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Correct Answer: C) The client arouses briefly in response to a sternal rub

Rationale: A stuporous client is nearly unresponsive and only arouses briefly with vigorous,
intense, or painful stimuli (such as a sternal rub or nailbed pressure).

3. Application of the DSM-5

Q: A nurse is planning a peer group discussion about the DSM-5. Which of the following should
be included? (Select all that apply.) * A) The DSM-5 provides legal guidelines for involuntary
admission

• B) The DSM-5 establishes diagnostic criteria for individual mental health disorders

• C) The DSM-5 assists nurses in planning care for clients with mental health disorders

• D) The DSM-5 includes expected assessment findings for mental health disorders

• E) The DSM-5 outlines treatment modalities for psychiatric conditions

Correct Answers: B), C), and D)

> Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides standardized criteria and expected
clinical findings, which aids nurses in assessment and care planning. It does not establish legal
criteria for admission, nor does it dictate specific medical or pharmacological treatment
modalities.

4. Emergency Involuntary Admission Criteria

Q: A nurse in an emergency mental health facility is caring for a group of clients. Which of the
following requires temporary emergency admission?

• A) A client with OCD experiencing compulsions

• B) A client with schizophrenia refusing medications

• C) A client with borderline personality disorder who assaulted someone with a metal rod

• D) A client with depression who reports low mood

Correct Answer: C) A client with borderline personality disorder who assaulted someone with
a metal rod

Rationale: Temporary emergency involuntary admission is legally and clinically justified when a
client presents an immediate danger to themselves or others, such as committing a violent
assault.

5. Legal and Ethical Issues: Seclusion

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Q: A nurse places a client in seclusion overnight due to short staffing and the client’s aggressive
behavior. This action is an example of:

• A) Negligence

• B) False imprisonment

• C) Assault

• D) Battery

Correct Answer: B) False imprisonment

Rationale: Restraining or secluding a client without proper medical orders, clinical justification,
or utilizing it as a punitive measure/convenience due to short staffing constitutes false
imprisonment.

6. Client Safety vs. Confidentiality

Q: A client states, “Don’t tell anyone, but I hid a knife under my mattress to protect myself.”
What should the nurse do?

• A) Keep the information confidential

• B) Ask the client why she feels threatened

• C) Report the incident to the healthcare team without informing the client

• D) Reassure the client and remove the knife later

Correct Answer: C) Report the incident to the healthcare team without informing the client

Rationale: Client and environmental safety take absolute priority over confidentiality. Active
threats of harm or possession of weapons must be immediately communicated to the treatment
team to secure the environment.

7. Mechanical Restraint Documentation

Q: Which of the following should be documented for a client in mechanical restraints? (Select all
that apply.) * A) "Client was sedated to prevent resistance."

• B) "Client was offered 8 oz of water every hr."

• C) "Client shouted obscenities at assistive personnel."

• D) "Client received chlorpromazine 15 mg by mouth at 1000."

Correct Answers: B), C), and D) >

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Institution
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Course
Mental health

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