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NSG124/NSG 124 Final Exam V2 | Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale | Herzing University

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NSG124/NSG 124 Final Exam V2 | Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale | Herzing University

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NSG124/NSG 124 Final Exam V2 |
Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale |
Herzing University
1. A nurse is administering a medication sublingually. Which statement correctly describes

the rationale for this route?

A. The medication bypasses the first-pass effect of the liver by entering systemic circulation

directly.


B. The medication is absorbed through the stomach lining for slow release.


C. The medication is meant to treat local infections within the oral cavity.


D. The medication requires gastric acid to be activated before absorption.


Correct Answer: A


Rationale: Sublingual administration allows the drug to dissolve under the tongue and

enter the rich capillary bed directly into the bloodstream. This method avoids the first-pass

metabolism that occurs when a drug is processed by the liver after intestinal absorption. It

is essential for the nurse to instruct the patient not to swallow the pill or drink water until

it is completely dissolved.


2. A patient is prescribed Digoxin 0.125 mg daily. The nurse identifies which of the following

as the primary symptom of early digoxin toxicity?

A. Peripheral edema and weight gain

,B. Extreme hypertension and tachycardia


C. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting


D. Orange discoloration of the urine


Correct Answer: C


Rationale: Early signs of digoxin toxicity typically involve gastrointestinal disturbances

such as anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. As toxicity progresses, patients may experience

visual disturbances such as yellow-green halos around lights. The nurse must monitor

serum digoxin levels and potassium levels closely, as hypokalemia increases the risk of

toxicity.


3. Which laboratory value is the most important to monitor for a patient receiving a heparin

infusion for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

A. Prothrombin Time (PT)


B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)


C. White Blood Cell (WBC) count


D. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)


Correct Answer: D


Rationale: The aPTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin and to

guide dosage adjustments. PT and INR are specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of

, Warfarin therapy. The nurse must ensure the aPTT remains within the therapeutic range to

prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding risks.


4. A patient is being treated for an acute asthma attack. Which medication should the nurse

expect to administer first for rapid bronchodilation?

A. Salmeterol


B. Fluticasone


C. Albuterol


D. Montelukast


Correct Answer: C


Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that provides rapid relief of

bronchospasm during an acute attack. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist and is not

used for rescue purposes. The nurse should assess the patient’s breath sounds and oxygen

saturation before and after administration to evaluate effectiveness.


5. The nurse is educating a patient about a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which common

side effect should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Gingival hyperplasia


B. Dry, nonproductive cough


C. Hypokalemia


D. Tinnitus

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