NSG124/NSG 124 Final Exam V3 |
Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale |
Herzing University
1. A patient is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which clinical finding should the nurse
identify as a primary indicator of digoxin toxicity?
A. Increased appetite and weight gain
B. Yellow-green visual disturbances and halos around lights
C. Tachycardia and high blood pressure
D. Peripheral edema and crackles in the lungs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity commonly presents with visual disturbances such as blurred
vision or yellow-green halos. Gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and
anorexia are also early warning signs of toxicity. The nurse must assess the apical pulse for
one full minute and hold the medication if the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer spironolactone to a patient with hypertension. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
A. Serum sodium levels
B. Serum calcium levels
C. Serum glucose levels
,D. Serum potassium levels
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks the action of
aldosterone in the distal nephron. This mechanism leads to the retention of potassium
while excreting sodium and water. Patients must be monitored for hyperkalemia,
particularly if they are also taking ACE inhibitors or consuming salt substitutes.
3. Which education should the nurse provide to a patient starting a new prescription for
warfarin?
A. Increase intake of dark green leafy vegetables
B. Take aspirin for minor headaches
C. Discontinue the medication if bruising occurs
D. Maintain a consistent intake of Vitamin K
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vitamin K is the antagonist for warfarin, and sudden changes in dietary intake
can affect the medication’s efficacy and INR levels. Patients should be taught to maintain a
consistent amount of green leafy vegetables rather than avoiding them entirely. Regular
blood testing for PT/INR is required to ensure therapeutic dosing and safety.
4. A patient is receiving an intravenous infusion of vancomycin. The nurse notes the patient’s
face and neck are becoming bright red and flushed. What is the priority action?
A. Administer epinephrine immediately
, B. Slow the infusion rate and assess the patient
C. Stop the infusion and notify the provider
D. Apply cold compresses to the flushed areas
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common reaction to rapid vancomycin infusion caused
by histamine release. It is not a true allergic reaction but requires the infusion to be slowed
down significantly to alleviate symptoms. The nurse should continue to monitor the
patient’s blood pressure and cardiac rhythm during the remainder of the infusion.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors like lisinopril?
A. Decreasing the heart rate by blocking beta receptors
B. Directly vasodilating the peripheral arterial system
C. Blocking the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
D. Preventing the reabsorption of sodium in the Loop of Henle
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the enzyme that converts Angiotensin I into
the potent vasoconstrictor Angiotensin II. This results in vasodilation and a reduction in
aldosterone secretion, which helps lower blood pressure. A common and annoying side
effect of this class is a persistent dry, nonproductive cough.
Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale |
Herzing University
1. A patient is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which clinical finding should the nurse
identify as a primary indicator of digoxin toxicity?
A. Increased appetite and weight gain
B. Yellow-green visual disturbances and halos around lights
C. Tachycardia and high blood pressure
D. Peripheral edema and crackles in the lungs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity commonly presents with visual disturbances such as blurred
vision or yellow-green halos. Gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and
anorexia are also early warning signs of toxicity. The nurse must assess the apical pulse for
one full minute and hold the medication if the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer spironolactone to a patient with hypertension. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
A. Serum sodium levels
B. Serum calcium levels
C. Serum glucose levels
,D. Serum potassium levels
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks the action of
aldosterone in the distal nephron. This mechanism leads to the retention of potassium
while excreting sodium and water. Patients must be monitored for hyperkalemia,
particularly if they are also taking ACE inhibitors or consuming salt substitutes.
3. Which education should the nurse provide to a patient starting a new prescription for
warfarin?
A. Increase intake of dark green leafy vegetables
B. Take aspirin for minor headaches
C. Discontinue the medication if bruising occurs
D. Maintain a consistent intake of Vitamin K
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vitamin K is the antagonist for warfarin, and sudden changes in dietary intake
can affect the medication’s efficacy and INR levels. Patients should be taught to maintain a
consistent amount of green leafy vegetables rather than avoiding them entirely. Regular
blood testing for PT/INR is required to ensure therapeutic dosing and safety.
4. A patient is receiving an intravenous infusion of vancomycin. The nurse notes the patient’s
face and neck are becoming bright red and flushed. What is the priority action?
A. Administer epinephrine immediately
, B. Slow the infusion rate and assess the patient
C. Stop the infusion and notify the provider
D. Apply cold compresses to the flushed areas
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common reaction to rapid vancomycin infusion caused
by histamine release. It is not a true allergic reaction but requires the infusion to be slowed
down significantly to alleviate symptoms. The nurse should continue to monitor the
patient’s blood pressure and cardiac rhythm during the remainder of the infusion.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors like lisinopril?
A. Decreasing the heart rate by blocking beta receptors
B. Directly vasodilating the peripheral arterial system
C. Blocking the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
D. Preventing the reabsorption of sodium in the Loop of Henle
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the enzyme that converts Angiotensin I into
the potent vasoconstrictor Angiotensin II. This results in vasodilation and a reduction in
aldosterone secretion, which helps lower blood pressure. A common and annoying side
effect of this class is a persistent dry, nonproductive cough.
