PUBH Comprehensive Final Examination
Actual Questions and Answers with 100% Accuracy
Comprehensive Public Health: Epidemiology, Biostatistics, Environmental Health,
Health Policy, Social Determinants, and Global Health
Author: Department of Epidemiology and Community Health
School of Public Health, University of Minnesota
Contact: | Minneapolis, MN 55455
Academic Year 2026–2027 | Final Examination
Date: June 16, 2026
Abstract
This comprehensive final examination comprises 50 multiple-choice questions designed to
assess graduate-level mastery of public health and population health sciences, aligned with
2026–2027 academic standards. The examination is organized into five domains: (1)
Advanced Epidemiology and Biostatistics, assessing causal inference, study design
interpretation, survival analysis, and meta-analytical reasoning; (2) Environmental,
Occupational, and Global Health, covering environmental risk assessment, occupational
safety, planetary health, and the global burden of disease; (3) Health Policy, Management,
and Ethics, addressing resource allocation ethics, policy analysis frameworks, healthcare
systems, and public health law; (4) Social and Behavioral Sciences, SDOH, and Health
Equity, encompassing behavioral theories, intersectionality, structural competency, and
structural determinants; and (5) Core Functions, Essential Services, and 2026 Systems
Updates, integrating the updated 10 EPHS, AI-driven surveillance, digital health equity,
and pandemic resilience frameworks. Questions are distributed across recall (30%),
application (50%), and analysis (20%) cognitive levels, with emphasis on scenario-based
items requiring analytical reasoning. All content has been verified for accuracy against
peer-reviewed literature and current WHO/CDC frameworks.
Keywords: Comprehensive Public Health; Epidemiology; Biostatistics; Environmental Health; Health
Policy; Social Determinants of Health; Health Equity; Essential Public Health Services; 2026 Standards;
Graduate Examination
Exam PUBH Comprehensive Final Examination
Type Final Exam (Actual Questions and Answers)
Verification 100% Accuracy – Professor Verified
Year Alignment 2026 | 2027 Academic Standards
, PUBH Final Exam | 100% Accuracy (VERIFIED)
Total Questions 50 (2 points each = 100 points)
Passing Threshold 80% (80/100 points)
Cognitive Distribution Recall 30% (15Q) | Application 50% (25Q) | Analysis 20% (10Q)
Question Style 75% Scenario-Based | 25% Direct Recall
Framework Updated 10 EPHS (2020/2026), WHO IHR 2026, CDC Digital Health Strategy
Page 2
, PUBH Final Exam | 100% Accuracy (VERIFIED)
Section 1: Advanced Epidemiology & Biostatistics
Q1. In a prospective cohort study of 8,000 participants, 2,000 are exposed to a environmental
contaminant and 6,000 are unexposed. After 10 years, 400 exposed and 240 unexposed participants have
developed the disease of interest. The study also reports 200 person-years of observation lost to attrition
among the exposed group. What is the relative risk (RR)? [Application]
A. A. RR = 0.80, indicating a protective effect of the contaminant
B. B. RR = 5.00, indicating a fivefold increased risk among the exposed
C. C. RR = 5.00, indicating individuals exposed to the contaminant have five times the risk of
developing the disease compared to unexposed individuals [CORRECT]
D. D. RR = 1.67, calculated as (400+240)/(2000+6000) = 0.08, representing the overall disease risk
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Risk exposed = 400/2000 = 0.20; Risk unexposed = 240/6000 = 0.04; RR = 0.20/0.04 = 5.00. The
attrition data is irrelevant to RR calculation from cumulative incidence.
Q2. A randomized controlled trial reports a hazard ratio (HR) of 0.72 (95% CI: 0.58, 0.89) for the
association between a new pharmacologic intervention and cardiovascular event-free survival over 5
years. Which interpretation is most accurate? [Application]
A. A. The intervention reduces the hazard of cardiovascular events by 28%, and because the 95%
CI does not cross 1.0, the result is statistically significant at p < 0.05 [CORRECT]
B. B. The intervention reduces cardiovascular event rates by 72%, with 95% probability that the true HR
falls between 0.58 and 0.89
C. C. The absolute risk reduction is 0.72, meaning 72 fewer events per 100 treated patients over 5 years
D. D. The intervention increases cardiovascular event-free survival by 28%, but the result is not
statistically significant because 0.72 is close to 1.0
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HR < 1.0 indicates risk reduction; (1 - 0.72) x 100 = 28% reduction. The CI (0.58, 0.89) excludes
1.0, confirming significance at alpha = 0.05.
Q3. In a case-control study examining the association between pesticide exposure and Parkinson's
disease, the crude odds ratio is 3.50. After adjusting for age, sex, and rural residence using multivariable
logistic regression, the adjusted OR is 2.10. Which of the following is the most appropriate
interpretation? [Analysis]
A. A. Confounding by age, sex, and rural residence explains approximately 40% of the observed
crude association between pesticide exposure and Parkinson's disease [CORRECT]
B. B. The adjustment invalidates the study findings because the adjusted OR is less than half the crude
OR, indicating severe confounding that cannot be controlled
C. C. The crude OR is the correct measure because case-control studies cannot use multivariable logistic
regression for adjustment
D. D. The adjusted OR of 2.10 means that pesticide exposure increases the risk of Parkinson's disease by
210% in the general population
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The crude OR of 3.50 was attenuated to 2.10 after adjustment, suggesting that confounders
accounted for a portion of the observed association: (3.50-2.10)/3.50 = 40%.
Q4. A Kaplan-Meier survival analysis compares two groups receiving different cancer treatments. At 36
months, Group A has 65% survival and Group B has 48% survival. The log-rank test yields p = 0.003.
Which statement is correct? [Application]
A. A. The median survival time is 36 months for both groups, with Group A showing a statistically
significant advantage
Page 3
Actual Questions and Answers with 100% Accuracy
Comprehensive Public Health: Epidemiology, Biostatistics, Environmental Health,
Health Policy, Social Determinants, and Global Health
Author: Department of Epidemiology and Community Health
School of Public Health, University of Minnesota
Contact: | Minneapolis, MN 55455
Academic Year 2026–2027 | Final Examination
Date: June 16, 2026
Abstract
This comprehensive final examination comprises 50 multiple-choice questions designed to
assess graduate-level mastery of public health and population health sciences, aligned with
2026–2027 academic standards. The examination is organized into five domains: (1)
Advanced Epidemiology and Biostatistics, assessing causal inference, study design
interpretation, survival analysis, and meta-analytical reasoning; (2) Environmental,
Occupational, and Global Health, covering environmental risk assessment, occupational
safety, planetary health, and the global burden of disease; (3) Health Policy, Management,
and Ethics, addressing resource allocation ethics, policy analysis frameworks, healthcare
systems, and public health law; (4) Social and Behavioral Sciences, SDOH, and Health
Equity, encompassing behavioral theories, intersectionality, structural competency, and
structural determinants; and (5) Core Functions, Essential Services, and 2026 Systems
Updates, integrating the updated 10 EPHS, AI-driven surveillance, digital health equity,
and pandemic resilience frameworks. Questions are distributed across recall (30%),
application (50%), and analysis (20%) cognitive levels, with emphasis on scenario-based
items requiring analytical reasoning. All content has been verified for accuracy against
peer-reviewed literature and current WHO/CDC frameworks.
Keywords: Comprehensive Public Health; Epidemiology; Biostatistics; Environmental Health; Health
Policy; Social Determinants of Health; Health Equity; Essential Public Health Services; 2026 Standards;
Graduate Examination
Exam PUBH Comprehensive Final Examination
Type Final Exam (Actual Questions and Answers)
Verification 100% Accuracy – Professor Verified
Year Alignment 2026 | 2027 Academic Standards
, PUBH Final Exam | 100% Accuracy (VERIFIED)
Total Questions 50 (2 points each = 100 points)
Passing Threshold 80% (80/100 points)
Cognitive Distribution Recall 30% (15Q) | Application 50% (25Q) | Analysis 20% (10Q)
Question Style 75% Scenario-Based | 25% Direct Recall
Framework Updated 10 EPHS (2020/2026), WHO IHR 2026, CDC Digital Health Strategy
Page 2
, PUBH Final Exam | 100% Accuracy (VERIFIED)
Section 1: Advanced Epidemiology & Biostatistics
Q1. In a prospective cohort study of 8,000 participants, 2,000 are exposed to a environmental
contaminant and 6,000 are unexposed. After 10 years, 400 exposed and 240 unexposed participants have
developed the disease of interest. The study also reports 200 person-years of observation lost to attrition
among the exposed group. What is the relative risk (RR)? [Application]
A. A. RR = 0.80, indicating a protective effect of the contaminant
B. B. RR = 5.00, indicating a fivefold increased risk among the exposed
C. C. RR = 5.00, indicating individuals exposed to the contaminant have five times the risk of
developing the disease compared to unexposed individuals [CORRECT]
D. D. RR = 1.67, calculated as (400+240)/(2000+6000) = 0.08, representing the overall disease risk
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Risk exposed = 400/2000 = 0.20; Risk unexposed = 240/6000 = 0.04; RR = 0.20/0.04 = 5.00. The
attrition data is irrelevant to RR calculation from cumulative incidence.
Q2. A randomized controlled trial reports a hazard ratio (HR) of 0.72 (95% CI: 0.58, 0.89) for the
association between a new pharmacologic intervention and cardiovascular event-free survival over 5
years. Which interpretation is most accurate? [Application]
A. A. The intervention reduces the hazard of cardiovascular events by 28%, and because the 95%
CI does not cross 1.0, the result is statistically significant at p < 0.05 [CORRECT]
B. B. The intervention reduces cardiovascular event rates by 72%, with 95% probability that the true HR
falls between 0.58 and 0.89
C. C. The absolute risk reduction is 0.72, meaning 72 fewer events per 100 treated patients over 5 years
D. D. The intervention increases cardiovascular event-free survival by 28%, but the result is not
statistically significant because 0.72 is close to 1.0
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HR < 1.0 indicates risk reduction; (1 - 0.72) x 100 = 28% reduction. The CI (0.58, 0.89) excludes
1.0, confirming significance at alpha = 0.05.
Q3. In a case-control study examining the association between pesticide exposure and Parkinson's
disease, the crude odds ratio is 3.50. After adjusting for age, sex, and rural residence using multivariable
logistic regression, the adjusted OR is 2.10. Which of the following is the most appropriate
interpretation? [Analysis]
A. A. Confounding by age, sex, and rural residence explains approximately 40% of the observed
crude association between pesticide exposure and Parkinson's disease [CORRECT]
B. B. The adjustment invalidates the study findings because the adjusted OR is less than half the crude
OR, indicating severe confounding that cannot be controlled
C. C. The crude OR is the correct measure because case-control studies cannot use multivariable logistic
regression for adjustment
D. D. The adjusted OR of 2.10 means that pesticide exposure increases the risk of Parkinson's disease by
210% in the general population
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The crude OR of 3.50 was attenuated to 2.10 after adjustment, suggesting that confounders
accounted for a portion of the observed association: (3.50-2.10)/3.50 = 40%.
Q4. A Kaplan-Meier survival analysis compares two groups receiving different cancer treatments. At 36
months, Group A has 65% survival and Group B has 48% survival. The log-rank test yields p = 0.003.
Which statement is correct? [Application]
A. A. The median survival time is 36 months for both groups, with Group A showing a statistically
significant advantage
Page 3
