Comprehensive Study Guide, Practice Exam Questions and Answers,
Exam Prep Test Bank, Nursing Fundamentals Review, Medical-Surgical
Nursing, Maternal and Child Health, Community Health Nursing,
Psychiatric Nursing Concepts, Pharmacology Essentials, and Detailed
Rationales for Licensure Preparation
Question 1: What is the normal resting heart rate for a healthy adult?
A. 40 to 60 beats per minute B. 60 to 100 beats per minute C. 100 to 120 beats per
minute D. 120 to 150 beats per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 60 to 100 beats per minute
Rationale: The normal resting heart rate for adults ranges from 60 to 100 beats per
minute.
Question 2: What is the normal respiratory rate for a resting adult?
A. 8 to 12 breaths per minute B. 12 to 20 breaths per minute C. 20 to 28 breaths per
minute D. 28 to 36 breaths per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 12 to 20 breaths per minute
Rationale: A normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
Question 3: What is the normal core body temperature in Celsius?
A. 35.0 to 36.0 B. 36.5 to 37.5 C. 37.6 to 38.5 D. 38.6 to 39.5
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 36.5 to 37.5
Rationale: The normal average core body temperature for a healthy adult is
approximately 37 degrees Celsius, with a normal range of 36.5 to 37.5.
Question 4: Which blood pressure reading is considered normal for an adult?
A. 140/90 mmHg B. 130/85 mmHg C. 120/80 mmHg D. 110/60 mmHg
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 120/80 mmHg
Rationale: A blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg is widely recognized as the standard
normal reading for adults.
Question 5: What is the minimum recommended duration for handwashing with
soap and water?
A. 1 to 2 seconds B. 5 to 10 seconds C. 15 to 20 seconds D. 60 to 90 seconds
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 15 to 20 seconds
Rationale: Proper hand hygiene requires washing hands with soap and water for at least
15 to 20 seconds to effectively remove pathogens.
,Question 6: Which piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) should be
removed first?
A. Mask B. Gown C. Gloves D. Goggles
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Gloves
Rationale: Gloves are the most contaminated PPE and should be removed first to
prevent the spread of microorganisms to other items.
Question 7: What is the proper body mechanic for lifting a heavy object?
A. Bend at the waist and keep legs straight B. Bend at the knees and keep the back
straight C. Twist the torso while lifting D. Hold the object away from the body
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Bend at the knees and keep the back straight
Rationale: Bending at the knees and keeping the back straight utilizes the strong leg
muscles and prevents spinal injury.
Question 8: Which position is best for a patient experiencing severe respiratory
distress?
A. Supine B. Prone C. High Fowler's D. Trendelenburg
CORRECT ANSWER: C. High Fowler's
Rationale: High Fowler's position elevates the head of the bed to 90 degrees,
maximizing chest expansion and easing breathing.
Question 9: What is the primary purpose of the Trendelenburg position?
A. To relieve respiratory distress B. To increase venous return to the heart C. To prevent
aspiration D. To reduce intracranial pressure
CORRECT ANSWER: B. To increase venous return to the heart
Rationale: Trendelenburg position places the head lower than the feet, which
historically was used to increase venous return in hypotensive patients.
Question 10: Which position is most appropriate for administering a cleansing
enema?
A. Supine B. Prone C. Left Sims' D. Right lateral
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Left Sims'
Rationale: The left Sims' position aligns with the natural anatomy of the sigmoid colon,
allowing the enema solution to flow by gravity.
Question 11: How is the length for nasogastric (NG) tube insertion measured?
A. From the mouth to the umbilicus B. From the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid
process C. From the nose to the sternum D. From the earlobe to the umbilicus
,CORRECT ANSWER: B. From the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process
Rationale: Measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe and down to the xiphoid
process estimates the correct distance to the stomach.
Question 12: What is the maximum recommended gastric residual volume before
holding an enteral feeding?
A. 50 mL B. 100 mL C. 250 mL D. 500 mL
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 250 mL
Rationale: A gastric residual volume greater than 250 mL indicates delayed gastric
emptying and increases the risk of aspiration.
Question 13: What is the minimum normal urine output for an adult patient per
hour?
A. 10 mL/hr B. 30 mL/hr C. 50 mL/hr D. 100 mL/hr
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 30 mL/hr
Rationale: A minimum urine output of 30 mL/hr (or 0.5 mL/kg/hr) indicates adequate
renal perfusion and kidney function.
Question 14: What is the correct technique for performing perineal care on a
female patient with an indwelling catheter?
A. Wipe from the anus toward the meatus B. Wipe in a circular motion around the
meatus C. Wipe downward from the meatus toward the anus D. Use the same swab for
multiple strokes
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Wipe downward from the meatus toward the anus
Rationale: Wiping from the cleanest area (meatus) to the dirtiest area (anus) prevents
the introduction of fecal bacteria into the urinary tract.
Question 15: Which injection technique requires the Z-track method?
A. Subcutaneous insulin B. Intradermal tuberculin C. Intramuscular iron dextran D.
Intravenous antibiotics
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Intramuscular iron dextran
Rationale: The Z-track method seals the medication deep in the muscle, preventing
leakage into subcutaneous tissues and reducing irritation.
Question 16: What is the correct angle of insertion for an intramuscular (IM)
injection?
A. 15 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 60 degrees D. 90 degrees
CORRECT ANSWER: D. 90 degrees
, Rationale: A 90-degree angle ensures the medication is deposited deep into the muscle
tissue.
Question 17: What is the correct angle of insertion for an intradermal injection?
A. 5 to 15 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 60 degrees D. 90 degrees
CORRECT ANSWER: A. 5 to 15 degrees
Rationale: A shallow angle of 5 to 15 degrees is used to inject medication just under the
epidermis.
Question 18: What is the correct angle of insertion for a subcutaneous injection?
A. 5 to 15 degrees B. 45 to 90 degrees C. 60 degrees only D. 90 degrees only
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 45 to 90 degrees
Rationale: Subcutaneous injections are given at a 45 to 90-degree angle depending on
the amount of subcutaneous tissue.
Question 19: What does wound dehiscence refer to?
A. Infection of the wound bed B. Separation of wound edges C. Protrusion of internal
organs D. Formation of a keloid
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Separation of wound edges
Rationale: Dehiscence is the partial or complete separation of the outer wound layers.
Question 20: What is the natural pacemaker of the heart?
A. Atrioventricular (AV) node B. Sinoatrial (SA) node C. Bundle of His D. Purkinje fibers
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Sinoatrial (SA) node
Rationale: The SA node initiates the electrical impulse that causes the heart to contract.
Question 21: Which valve is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle?
A. Tricuspid valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Mitral valve D. Aortic valve
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Mitral valve
Rationale: The mitral (bicuspid) valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle.
Question 22: What is the primary site of gas exchange in the lungs?
A. Bronchi B. Bronchioles C. Trachea D. Alveoli
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Alveoli
Rationale: Alveoli are the tiny air sacs where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged
with the blood.