Galen NSG 3250 Adult Health I Exam 4
Final Prep: BPH, STIs, & Neuro Test
Bank Concepts Already Graded A+ |
2026 Updated
Master your Galen NSG 3250 Adult Health I Exam 4 with this ultimate study
resource. It features 100 NCLEX-style practice questions with bolded correct
answers and in-depth Rationales included right below each item. Boost your
score on high-yield final exam topics like Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH),
male reproductive conditions, Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs), and
neurological therapeutic communication. Perfect for quick reviews or a full
mock final exam before test day!
,1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client screening for prostate issues.
Which prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level should the nurse recognize as being within
the normal expected reference range?
• A. 6.2 ng/mL
• B. 8.5 ng/mL
• C. 2.4 ng/mL
• D. 12.1 ng/mL
• Rationale: A normal PSA level is generally less than 4 ng/mL. Levels above 4 ng/mL
indicate prostatic inflammation, hypertrophy, or potential malignancy, making options A,
B, and D elevated findings.
2. A client is prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which home medication listed in
the client's history requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
• A. Atorvastatin
• B. Isosorbide mononitrate
• C. Metformin
• D. Lisinopril
• Rationale: Sildenafil causes smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation. Taking it
alongside nitrates like isosorbide mononitrate or nitroglycerin can cause a profound, life -
threatening drop in blood pressure.
3. A nurse is caring for an older adult client with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which
clinical finding should the nurse expect when assessing this client?
• A. Frequent episodes of nocturia
• B. High-velocity urinary stream
• C. Large volumes of voided urine
• D. Decreased urge to urinate
• Rationale: Hypertrophy of the prostate constricts the urethra, leading to incomplete
bladder emptying. This manifests as frequent nighttime urination (nocturia), urgency,
and a weak stream.
,4. A male client comes to the clinic presenting with a single, painless lesion on his penis.
The nurse suspects primary syphilis. Which organism causes this condition?
• A. Trichomonas vaginalis
• B. Chlamydia trachomatis
• C. Treponema pallidum
• D. Herpes simplex virus type 2
• Rationale: Syphilis is caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum. Primary
syphilis is characterized by a classic, painless lesion called a chancre at the site of
inoculation.
5. A client is diagnosed with trichomoniasis. Which medication should the nurse expect the
healthcare provider to prescribe?
• A. Acyclovir
• B. Metronidazole
• C. Penicillin G benzathine
• D. Ceftriaxone
• Rationale: Trichomoniasis is a protozoan infection requiring antiprotozoal or antibiotic
therapy, standardly metronidazole or tinidazole. Acyclovir is for viruses; penicillin and
ceftriaxone treat bacteria.
6. A nurse is designing a care plan for a client who has expressive aphasia following a
stroke. Which communication strategy is most appropriate?
• A. Speak very loudly directly into the client's ear.
• B. Complete the client's sentences to avoid frustration.
• C. Use a communication board with pictures and common phrases.
• D. Avoid eye contact to decrease client anxiety.
• Rationale: Expressive aphasia impairs a client's ability to produce spoken words. Using
visual tools like a communication board bridges the gap without inducing vocal strain or
client frustration.
, 7. A nurse assesses a young male client with severe scrotal pain and notes inflammation of
the tube at the back of the testicle. The nurse should document this finding as which
condition?
• A. Hydrocele
• B. Varicocele
• C. Epididymitis
• D. Spermatocele
• Rationale: Epididymitis is an acute inflammation of the epididymis, the coiled tube
located at the back of the testicle. It is frequently caused by the ascending spread of a
urinary tract or sexually transmitted infection.
8. A client with BPH is prescribed finasteride. What crucial educational point should the
nurse include when teaching the client about this medication?
• A. It may take several months to see a reduction in prostate size.
• B. You should notice an immediate increase in your urine stream.
• C. This medication acts by relaxing the smooth muscles of the bladder.
• D. Pregnant women can handle this medication safely without gloves.
• Rationale: Finasteride is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor that works by blocking DHT to
shrink prostate tissue. This process takes 3 to 6 months to show clinical results. It is also
teratogenic and should not be handled by pregnant individuals.
9. A female client visits the clinic reporting a malodorous, frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal
discharge. Which infection matches these clinical signs?
• A. Candidiasis
• B. Genital herpes
• C. Trichomoniasis
• D. Gonorrhea
• Rationale: The classic triad of signs for trichomoniasis includes a profuse, malodorous,
frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal discharge along with local vulvovaginal irritation.
10. A nurse provides discharge instructions to a client newly diagnosed with genital herpes
(HSV-2). Which statement by the client shows a correct understanding?
Final Prep: BPH, STIs, & Neuro Test
Bank Concepts Already Graded A+ |
2026 Updated
Master your Galen NSG 3250 Adult Health I Exam 4 with this ultimate study
resource. It features 100 NCLEX-style practice questions with bolded correct
answers and in-depth Rationales included right below each item. Boost your
score on high-yield final exam topics like Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH),
male reproductive conditions, Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs), and
neurological therapeutic communication. Perfect for quick reviews or a full
mock final exam before test day!
,1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client screening for prostate issues.
Which prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level should the nurse recognize as being within
the normal expected reference range?
• A. 6.2 ng/mL
• B. 8.5 ng/mL
• C. 2.4 ng/mL
• D. 12.1 ng/mL
• Rationale: A normal PSA level is generally less than 4 ng/mL. Levels above 4 ng/mL
indicate prostatic inflammation, hypertrophy, or potential malignancy, making options A,
B, and D elevated findings.
2. A client is prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which home medication listed in
the client's history requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
• A. Atorvastatin
• B. Isosorbide mononitrate
• C. Metformin
• D. Lisinopril
• Rationale: Sildenafil causes smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation. Taking it
alongside nitrates like isosorbide mononitrate or nitroglycerin can cause a profound, life -
threatening drop in blood pressure.
3. A nurse is caring for an older adult client with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which
clinical finding should the nurse expect when assessing this client?
• A. Frequent episodes of nocturia
• B. High-velocity urinary stream
• C. Large volumes of voided urine
• D. Decreased urge to urinate
• Rationale: Hypertrophy of the prostate constricts the urethra, leading to incomplete
bladder emptying. This manifests as frequent nighttime urination (nocturia), urgency,
and a weak stream.
,4. A male client comes to the clinic presenting with a single, painless lesion on his penis.
The nurse suspects primary syphilis. Which organism causes this condition?
• A. Trichomonas vaginalis
• B. Chlamydia trachomatis
• C. Treponema pallidum
• D. Herpes simplex virus type 2
• Rationale: Syphilis is caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum. Primary
syphilis is characterized by a classic, painless lesion called a chancre at the site of
inoculation.
5. A client is diagnosed with trichomoniasis. Which medication should the nurse expect the
healthcare provider to prescribe?
• A. Acyclovir
• B. Metronidazole
• C. Penicillin G benzathine
• D. Ceftriaxone
• Rationale: Trichomoniasis is a protozoan infection requiring antiprotozoal or antibiotic
therapy, standardly metronidazole or tinidazole. Acyclovir is for viruses; penicillin and
ceftriaxone treat bacteria.
6. A nurse is designing a care plan for a client who has expressive aphasia following a
stroke. Which communication strategy is most appropriate?
• A. Speak very loudly directly into the client's ear.
• B. Complete the client's sentences to avoid frustration.
• C. Use a communication board with pictures and common phrases.
• D. Avoid eye contact to decrease client anxiety.
• Rationale: Expressive aphasia impairs a client's ability to produce spoken words. Using
visual tools like a communication board bridges the gap without inducing vocal strain or
client frustration.
, 7. A nurse assesses a young male client with severe scrotal pain and notes inflammation of
the tube at the back of the testicle. The nurse should document this finding as which
condition?
• A. Hydrocele
• B. Varicocele
• C. Epididymitis
• D. Spermatocele
• Rationale: Epididymitis is an acute inflammation of the epididymis, the coiled tube
located at the back of the testicle. It is frequently caused by the ascending spread of a
urinary tract or sexually transmitted infection.
8. A client with BPH is prescribed finasteride. What crucial educational point should the
nurse include when teaching the client about this medication?
• A. It may take several months to see a reduction in prostate size.
• B. You should notice an immediate increase in your urine stream.
• C. This medication acts by relaxing the smooth muscles of the bladder.
• D. Pregnant women can handle this medication safely without gloves.
• Rationale: Finasteride is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor that works by blocking DHT to
shrink prostate tissue. This process takes 3 to 6 months to show clinical results. It is also
teratogenic and should not be handled by pregnant individuals.
9. A female client visits the clinic reporting a malodorous, frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal
discharge. Which infection matches these clinical signs?
• A. Candidiasis
• B. Genital herpes
• C. Trichomoniasis
• D. Gonorrhea
• Rationale: The classic triad of signs for trichomoniasis includes a profuse, malodorous,
frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal discharge along with local vulvovaginal irritation.
10. A nurse provides discharge instructions to a client newly diagnosed with genital herpes
(HSV-2). Which statement by the client shows a correct understanding?
