NRNP 6665 | Week 11
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Week 11 Final
Exam
NRNP 6665 | Latest Q&As
100 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Psychiatric Evaluation & Diagnosis Child & Adolescent Psychiatry
Psychotherapy Modalities & Techniques Crisis Intervention & Suicide Risk Assessment
Psychopharmacology & Side Effect Management
NRNP 6665 Week 11 Final Exam -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTION 1 | Psychiatric Evaluation & Diagnosis | Q1-Q20 | NRNP 6665 Week 11 Final Exam 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 100
A 34-year-old woman presents to the psychiatric clinic reporting persistent sadness,
anhedonia, and difficulty concentrating for the past six weeks after losing her job. She
describes waking at 3 AM daily and has lost 8 pounds without trying. Her PHQ-9 score is
18. Based on DSM-5-TR criteria, what is the most accurate diagnosis?
A. Major depressive disorder, moderate to severe, because she meets criteria for duration,
symptom count, and functional impairment
B. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood, because the symptoms began after a
identifiable stressor
C. Persistent depressive disorder, because the symptoms have been present for more than
two months
D. Bereavement-related mood disturbance, because job loss is a significant life event
comparable to loss of a loved one
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
This patient meets DSM-5-TR criteria for major depressive disorder with at least five symptoms
(sadness, anhedonia, insomnia, weight loss, concentration difficulty) persisting for more than two
weeks with significant functional impairment. Adjustment disorder does not account for the severity
and symptom count, persistent depressive disorder requires two years, and bereavement is specific
to death of a loved one.
NRNP 6665 Week 11 Final Exam -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2
,Q2 Question 2 of 100
A 47-year-old man with a history of bipolar I disorder is brought to the emergency
department by his wife, who reports he has not slept for four days, has been spending
large sums of money, and claims he is developing a revolutionary medical device that will
change the world. His speech is rapid and difficult to interrupt. What is the most
appropriate initial diagnostic determination?
A. Schizoaffective disorder, because the patient exhibits both mood symptoms and psychotic
features
B. Bipolar I disorder, current episode manic with psychotic features, because grandiosity and
decreased need for sleep indicate mania with possible delusional thinking
C. Bipolar II disorder, because the patient has hypomanic symptoms that are causing
functional impairment
D. Cyclothymic disorder, because the patient has alternating mood episodes over an
extended period
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The patient exhibits classic manic episode features including decreased need for sleep, grandiosity,
excessive spending, and pressured speech, consistent with bipolar I disorder. The grandiose beliefs
about a revolutionary device may represent psychotic features. Bipolar II involves hypomania rather
than full mania, schizoaffective disorder requires psychotic symptoms in the absence of mood
episodes, and cyclothymic disorder involves chronic fluctuating mood not meeting full episode
criteria.
NRNP 6665 Week 11 Final Exam -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3
, Q3 Question 3 of 100
A 28-year-old woman reports a lifelong pattern of unstable relationships, impulsive
behaviors, and intense fears of abandonment. She describes recurrent suicidal gestures
and chronic feelings of emptiness. During the interview, she alternates between praising
and devaluing the clinician. Which personality disorder best explains this presentation?
A. Histrionic personality disorder, because the patient seeks attention and displays emotional
lability in interpersonal interactions
B. Narcissistic personality disorder, because the patient displays grandiosity and requires
excessive admiration from others
C. Borderline personality disorder, because the presentation includes frantic abandonment
fears, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidality, and chronic emptiness
D. Avoidant personality disorder, because the patient fears rejection and has difficulty
maintaining relationships
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The patient demonstrates the core features of borderline personality disorder including frantic
efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable and intense interpersonal relationships, impulsivity,
recurrent suicidal behavior, and chronic feelings of emptiness. Splitting behavior (alternating praise
and devaluation) is characteristic. Histrionic personality focuses on attention-seeking without
abandonment fears, narcissistic personality centers on grandiosity rather than emptiness, and
avoidant personality involves social inhibition rather than impulsivity.
NRNP 6665 Week 11 Final Exam -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Week 11 Final
Exam
NRNP 6665 | Latest Q&As
100 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Psychiatric Evaluation & Diagnosis Child & Adolescent Psychiatry
Psychotherapy Modalities & Techniques Crisis Intervention & Suicide Risk Assessment
Psychopharmacology & Side Effect Management
NRNP 6665 Week 11 Final Exam -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTION 1 | Psychiatric Evaluation & Diagnosis | Q1-Q20 | NRNP 6665 Week 11 Final Exam 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 100
A 34-year-old woman presents to the psychiatric clinic reporting persistent sadness,
anhedonia, and difficulty concentrating for the past six weeks after losing her job. She
describes waking at 3 AM daily and has lost 8 pounds without trying. Her PHQ-9 score is
18. Based on DSM-5-TR criteria, what is the most accurate diagnosis?
A. Major depressive disorder, moderate to severe, because she meets criteria for duration,
symptom count, and functional impairment
B. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood, because the symptoms began after a
identifiable stressor
C. Persistent depressive disorder, because the symptoms have been present for more than
two months
D. Bereavement-related mood disturbance, because job loss is a significant life event
comparable to loss of a loved one
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
This patient meets DSM-5-TR criteria for major depressive disorder with at least five symptoms
(sadness, anhedonia, insomnia, weight loss, concentration difficulty) persisting for more than two
weeks with significant functional impairment. Adjustment disorder does not account for the severity
and symptom count, persistent depressive disorder requires two years, and bereavement is specific
to death of a loved one.
NRNP 6665 Week 11 Final Exam -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2
,Q2 Question 2 of 100
A 47-year-old man with a history of bipolar I disorder is brought to the emergency
department by his wife, who reports he has not slept for four days, has been spending
large sums of money, and claims he is developing a revolutionary medical device that will
change the world. His speech is rapid and difficult to interrupt. What is the most
appropriate initial diagnostic determination?
A. Schizoaffective disorder, because the patient exhibits both mood symptoms and psychotic
features
B. Bipolar I disorder, current episode manic with psychotic features, because grandiosity and
decreased need for sleep indicate mania with possible delusional thinking
C. Bipolar II disorder, because the patient has hypomanic symptoms that are causing
functional impairment
D. Cyclothymic disorder, because the patient has alternating mood episodes over an
extended period
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The patient exhibits classic manic episode features including decreased need for sleep, grandiosity,
excessive spending, and pressured speech, consistent with bipolar I disorder. The grandiose beliefs
about a revolutionary device may represent psychotic features. Bipolar II involves hypomania rather
than full mania, schizoaffective disorder requires psychotic symptoms in the absence of mood
episodes, and cyclothymic disorder involves chronic fluctuating mood not meeting full episode
criteria.
NRNP 6665 Week 11 Final Exam -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3
, Q3 Question 3 of 100
A 28-year-old woman reports a lifelong pattern of unstable relationships, impulsive
behaviors, and intense fears of abandonment. She describes recurrent suicidal gestures
and chronic feelings of emptiness. During the interview, she alternates between praising
and devaluing the clinician. Which personality disorder best explains this presentation?
A. Histrionic personality disorder, because the patient seeks attention and displays emotional
lability in interpersonal interactions
B. Narcissistic personality disorder, because the patient displays grandiosity and requires
excessive admiration from others
C. Borderline personality disorder, because the presentation includes frantic abandonment
fears, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidality, and chronic emptiness
D. Avoidant personality disorder, because the patient fears rejection and has difficulty
maintaining relationships
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The patient demonstrates the core features of borderline personality disorder including frantic
efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable and intense interpersonal relationships, impulsivity,
recurrent suicidal behavior, and chronic feelings of emptiness. Splitting behavior (alternating praise
and devaluation) is characteristic. Histrionic personality focuses on attention-seeking without
abandonment fears, narcissistic personality centers on grandiosity rather than emptiness, and
avoidant personality involves social inhibition rather than impulsivity.
NRNP 6665 Week 11 Final Exam -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4
