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Philippine Nursing Licensure Exam (PNLE) Updated 2026 | Comprehensive Nursing Board Exam Study Guide, Practice Exam Questions and Answers, Exam Prep Test Bank, Nursing Fundamentals, Medical-Surgical Nursing Review, Community Health Nursing, Maternal and C

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This Philippine Nursing Licensure Exam (PNLE) Updated 2026 study resource offers a comprehensive and exam-focused review designed to help nursing graduates prepare effectively for one of the most important milestones in their professional journey. The material covers high-yield nursing topics including nursing fundamentals, medical-surgical nursing, maternal and child health care, community health nursing, psychiatric and mental health nursing, pharmacology, leadership and management, and professional practice concepts commonly assessed on the licensure examination. Featuring exam-style questions with detailed explanations, this guide supports structured revision, strengthens clinical judgment, and promotes efficient knowledge retention through practice-based learning. Ideal for candidates seeking organized preparation and broad content coverage, this resource helps build confidence and readiness for nursing board exam success. Follow the profile for newly added revision materials, study guides, and exam prep content.

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Institution
Philippine Nursing
Course
Philippine Nursing

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Philippine Nursing Licensure Exam (PNLE) Updated 2026 |
Comprehensive Nursing Board Exam Study Guide, Practice Exam
Questions and Answers, Exam Prep Test Bank, Nursing Fundamentals,
Medical-Surgical Nursing Review, Community Health Nursing, Maternal
and Child Health Care, Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing, Pharmacology
Concepts, Leadership and Management, and Detailed Rationales for
Licensure Preparation
Question 1: What is the primary purpose of handwashing in a clinical setting?
A. To remove all microorganisms B. To prevent the transmission of infection C. To keep
the hands moisturized D. To comply with hospital policy only
CORRECT ANSWER: B. To prevent the transmission of infection
Rationale: Handwashing is the single most effective method to prevent the spread of
infections in healthcare settings.
Question 2: Which vital sign should be assessed first in a patient with respiratory
distress?
A. Blood pressure B. Temperature C. Respiratory rate D. Pulse rate
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Respiratory rate
Rationale: In respiratory distress, assessing the respiratory rate and effort is the priority
to ensure adequate oxygenation.
Question 3: What is the most appropriate bed position for a patient experiencing
dyspnea?
A. Supine B. Prone C. Fowler's D. Trendelenburg
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Fowler's
Rationale: Fowler's position promotes maximum chest expansion and makes breathing
easier for patients with dyspnea.
Question 4: Which characteristic is indicative of a Stage 1 pressure ulcer?
A. Full-thickness skin loss B. Non-blanchable erythema C. Partial-thickness skin loss D.
Muscle exposure
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Non-blanchable erythema
Rationale: A Stage 1 pressure ulcer presents as intact skin with non-blanchable redness
over a bony prominence.
Question 5: What is the normal blood pressure range for a healthy adult?
A. Less than 120/80 mmHg B. 120-129/<80 mmHg C. 130-139/80-89 mmHg D. 140/90
mmHg or higher

,CORRECT ANSWER: A. Less than 120/80 mmHg
Rationale: Normal blood pressure for adults is defined as a systolic pressure of less
than 120 mmHg and a diastolic pressure of less than 80 mmHg.
Question 6: What is the normal body temperature range in Celsius?
A. 35.0 - 36.0 °C B. 36.5 - 37.5 °C C. 37.6 - 38.5 °C D. 38.6 - 39.5 °C
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 36.5 - 37.5 °C
Rationale: The normal average body temperature for a healthy adult is approximately 37
°C, with a normal range of 36.5 to 37.5 °C.
Question 7: What is the normal respiratory rate for a resting adult?
A. 8-12 breaths per minute B. 12-20 breaths per minute C. 20-28 breaths per minute D.
28-36 breaths per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 12-20 breaths per minute
Rationale: The normal respiratory rate for a healthy, resting adult is between 12 and 20
breaths per minute.
Question 8: Which artery is most commonly used to assess the pulse in an adult?
A. Carotid artery B. Brachial artery C. Radial artery D. Femoral artery
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Radial artery
Rationale: The radial artery, located on the thumb side of the wrist, is the most
accessible and commonly used site for routine pulse assessment.
Question 9: What is the primary rule for maintaining a sterile field?
A. Sterile items can be placed below waist level B. A sterile field can be left unattended
briefly C. Sterile objects can touch non-sterile objects D. Only sterile objects can touch
sterile objects
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Only sterile objects can touch sterile objects
Rationale: To maintain sterility, sterile objects must only come into contact with other
sterile objects; touching non-sterile items causes contamination.
Question 10: Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with
tuberculosis?
A. Contact precautions B. Droplet precautions C. Airborne precautions D. Standard
precautions
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Airborne precautions
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei, requiring airborne
precautions such as an N95 respirator and a negative pressure room.

,Question 11: How is the correct placement of a nasogastric (NG) tube initially
verified?
A. Auscultating an air bolus B. Checking gastric pH C. X-ray confirmation D. Observing
for coughing
CORRECT ANSWER: C. X-ray confirmation
Rationale: An X-ray is the gold standard and most reliable method to confirm the correct
placement of an NG tube before initiating feedings.
Question 12: What is the most important nursing intervention to prevent catheter-
associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI)?
A. Irrigating the catheter daily B. Performing routine perineal care C. Maintaining a
closed drainage system D. Changing the catheter every 24 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Maintaining a closed drainage system
Rationale: Maintaining a closed urinary drainage system is the most effective way to
prevent the introduction of bacteria and reduce the risk of CAUTI.
Question 13: At what angle should an intramuscular (IM) injection be administered?
A. 15 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 60 degrees D. 90 degrees
CORRECT ANSWER: D. 90 degrees
Rationale: Intramuscular injections are administered at a 90-degree angle to ensure the
medication is deposited deep into the muscle tissue.
Question 14: At what angle should a subcutaneous injection be administered?
A. 15 degrees B. 45 to 90 degrees C. 60 degrees D. 90 degrees only
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 45 to 90 degrees
Rationale: Subcutaneous injections are typically given at a 45-degree angle for shorter
needles or less adipose tissue, and 90 degrees for longer needles or more adipose
tissue.
Question 15: At what angle should an intradermal injection be administered?
A. 5 to 15 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 60 degrees D. 90 degrees
CORRECT ANSWER: A. 5 to 15 degrees
Rationale: Intradermal injections are administered at a shallow 5 to 15-degree angle to
place the medication just beneath the epidermis.
Question 16: Which clinical sign indicates phlebitis at an IV site?
A. Coolness and pallor B. Redness, warmth, and swelling C. Leakage of fluid into tissue
D. Blood backing up in the tubing

, CORRECT ANSWER: B. Redness, warmth, and swelling
Rationale: Phlebitis is the inflammation of a vein, characterized by a red streak, warmth,
swelling, and pain at the IV site.
Question 17: What is the priority action if a patient develops a blood transfusion
reaction?
A. Administer antihistamines B. Slow the transfusion rate C. Stop the transfusion
immediately D. Notify the blood bank
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Stop the transfusion immediately
Rationale: The immediate priority when a transfusion reaction is suspected is to stop
the transfusion to prevent further exposure to the incompatible blood.
Question 18: Which oxygen delivery device provides the highest concentration of
oxygen?
A. Nasal cannula B. Simple face mask C. Non-rebreather mask D. Venturi mask
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Non-rebreather mask
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask can deliver up to 90-100% oxygen concentration,
making it the highest among standard low-flow devices.
Question 19: What is the maximum recommended time for suctioning a patient's
airway?
A. 5 seconds B. 10 to 15 seconds C. 20 to 30 seconds D. 1 minute
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 10 to 15 seconds
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10-15 seconds per pass to prevent hypoxia,
mucosal damage, and vagal stimulation.
Question 20: What is the recommended rate for chest compressions during adult
CPR?
A. 60-80 per minute B. 80-100 per minute C. 100-120 per minute D. 120-140 per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 100-120 per minute
Rationale: Current CPR guidelines recommend a chest compression rate of 100 to 120
compressions per minute for adults.
Question 21: What is the largest organ in the human body?
A. Liver B. Brain C. Skin D. Lungs
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Skin
Rationale: The skin, or integumentary system, is the largest organ of the body, covering
and protecting internal structures.

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Uploaded on
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