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COMSAE PHASE 1 FORM 114 Actual EXAM – 180 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE

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COMSAE PHASE 1 FORM 114 Actual EXAM – 180 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE

Institution
COMSAE PHASE 1
Course
COMSAE PHASE 1

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COMSAE PHASE 1 FORM 114 Actual
EXAM – 180 QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL
DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS |
LATEST EXAM UPDATE


Section 1: Osteopathic Principles & Practice (OPP) – Questions
1–25

Q1. A 45-year-old male presents with low back pain after lifting a
box. On examination, the standing flexion test shows superior
movement of the right PSIS. Which somatic dysfunction is most
likely?

 A) Right anterior innominate
 B) Left posterior innominate
 C) Right sacral torsion on a left oblique axis
 D) Bilateral innominate rotation

Answer: A) Right anterior innominate
Rationale: A positive standing flexion test on the right suggests
iliosacral dysfunction on that side. For a right anterior innominate,
the right ASIS is positioned more inferiorly, creating a functional
short right leg and a positive standing flexion test on the right.

,Q2. A 35-year-old with chronic low back pain has a short left leg
on observation. Pelvic landmarks reveal a left posterior inferior
iliac spine (PIIS) and a right anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
more cephalad. What is the most likely somatic dysfunction?

 A) Left on left torsion
 B) Right on right torsion
 C) Left on right torsion
 D) Right on left torsion

Answer: C) Left on right torsion
Rationale: "Left on right" torsion means the left innominate
rotates anteriorly (ASIS down) relative to the sacrum, while the
right rotates posteriorly – consistent with left PIIS and right ASIS
being higher.

Q3. According to Fryette's first principle (Type I mechanics), when
the spine is in a neutral position, sidebending and rotation occur:

 A) To the same side
 B) To opposite sides
 C) Without rotation
 D) Only in the lumbar spine

Answer: B) To opposite sides
Rationale: Fryette's first principle states that in a neutral spine
(neither flexed nor extended), sidebending and rotation occur to
opposite sides.

Q4. A 30-year-old female with chronic headaches undergoes
OMM. You find that the right mastoid process is posterior and

,inferior compared to the left. Which somatic dysfunction best
describes this finding?

 A) Right rotation, right sidebending (Type I)
 B) Left rotation, right sidebending (Type II)
 C) Right rotation, left sidebending (Type II)
 D) Left rotation, left sidebending (Type I)

Answer: B) Left rotation, right sidebending
Rationale: The mastoid process moving posterior indicates
rotation to the opposite side. The mastoid moving inferior
indicates sidebending to the same side (Type II mechanics:
rotation and sidebending occur in opposite directions). Here, right
mastoid is posterior/inferior → rotation to the left, sidebending to
the right.

Q5. Which Chapman reflex point is associated with the kidney?

 A) Midpoint of the clavicle, 2nd intercostal space
 B) Tip of the 12th rib, 1 inch lateral to the spine
 C) Umbilicus, 2 inches inferior
 D) Medial humeral epicondyle

Answer: B) Tip of the 12th rib, ~1 inch lateral to spine
Rationale: The kidney Chapman reflex is located at the tip of the
12th rib, approximately 1 inch lateral to the spinous process.

Q6. A patient with asthma has tenderness at the 2nd intercostal
space, sternal border. This represents a Chapman reflex for which
organ?

 A) Heart

,  B) Lungs
-- D) Liver

Answer: B) Lungs
Rationale: Anterior lung Chapman points are located at the 2nd–
4th intercostal spaces parasternal.

Q7. The cranial rhythmic impulse (CRI) is most commonly
palpated at what rate in adults?

 A) 2–4 cycles/min
 B) 8–12 cycles/min
 C) 16–20 cycles/min
 D) 24–30 cycles/min

Answer: B) 8–12 cycles/min
Rationale: The cranial rhythmic impulse (CRI) is typically palpated
at a rate of 8–12 cycles per minute in adults.

Q8. Which muscle energy treatment is preferred for an acute
torticollis with left rotation and right sidebending restriction at
C2?

 A) Left rotation, right sidebending against resistance
 B) Right rotation, left sidebending (away from restriction)
with isometric contraction
 C) Neutral position only
 D) Traction without rotation

Answer: B) Right rotation, left sidebending
Rationale: In Type II somatic dysfunction, the isometric
contraction is applied away from the restrictive barrier.

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Institution
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Course
COMSAE PHASE 1

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