NGN- ATI RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE
PREDICTOR FORM A, B & C NEWEST
2026 TEST BANK| RN VATI
COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXAM
WITH COMPLETE 150 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+ .
**QUESTION 1**
A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
Which of the following is the priority assessment?
A. Monitor serum electrolytes
B. Check the infusion pump settings
C. Measure daily weight
D. Check capillary blood glucose
**CORRECT ANSWER: D**
**RATIONALE:** Hyperglycemia is a common complication of TPN due
to the high glucose content in the solution. Blood glucose should be
monitored every 4-6 hours as the priority assessment. While electrolyte
monitoring, pump settings, and weight are important, they are
,secondary to detecting and managing hyperglycemia, which can lead to
serious complications including hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome .
---
**QUESTION 2**
A client is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values
should the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic effect?
A. Platelet count
B. aPTT
C. PT/INR
D. Hemoglobin
**CORRECT ANSWER: C**
**RATIONALE:** Warfarin therapy is monitored using PT (Prothrombin
Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio). The therapeutic INR
range for most indications is 2.0-3.0. Platelet count monitors for
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, aPTT monitors heparin therapy,
and hemoglobin monitors for bleeding but does not assess therapeutic
effect .
---
,**QUESTION 3**
A client receiving vancomycin IV reports itching, facial flushing, and a
rapid heart rate during infusion. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Notify the provider immediately
B. Stop the infusion and assess the airway
C. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client
D. Administer diphenhydramine IV push
**CORRECT ANSWER: C**
**RATIONALE:** These are signs of Red Man Syndrome, a non-allergic
reaction caused by rapid vancomycin infusion. The priority action is to
slow the infusion rate and monitor the client. Red Man Syndrome is not
a true allergic reaction and does not require stopping the infusion
unless severe .
---
**QUESTION 4**
A client prescribed clozapine reports fatigue and a sore throat. Which
lab value is most important to review?
, A. Hemoglobin
B. WBC count
C. Platelet count
D. Blood glucose
**CORRECT ANSWER: B**
**RATIONALE:** Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis (dangerous drop
in WBCs), which significantly increases infection risk. Sore throat and
fatigue may be early signs of this life-threatening adverse effect. WBC
monitoring is mandatory during clozapine therapy .
---
**QUESTION 5**
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin. The apical pulse is 54/min.
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the medication
B. Recheck the pulse in 30 minutes
C. Notify the provider
D. Give the dose with food
PREDICTOR FORM A, B & C NEWEST
2026 TEST BANK| RN VATI
COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXAM
WITH COMPLETE 150 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+ .
**QUESTION 1**
A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
Which of the following is the priority assessment?
A. Monitor serum electrolytes
B. Check the infusion pump settings
C. Measure daily weight
D. Check capillary blood glucose
**CORRECT ANSWER: D**
**RATIONALE:** Hyperglycemia is a common complication of TPN due
to the high glucose content in the solution. Blood glucose should be
monitored every 4-6 hours as the priority assessment. While electrolyte
monitoring, pump settings, and weight are important, they are
,secondary to detecting and managing hyperglycemia, which can lead to
serious complications including hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome .
---
**QUESTION 2**
A client is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values
should the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic effect?
A. Platelet count
B. aPTT
C. PT/INR
D. Hemoglobin
**CORRECT ANSWER: C**
**RATIONALE:** Warfarin therapy is monitored using PT (Prothrombin
Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio). The therapeutic INR
range for most indications is 2.0-3.0. Platelet count monitors for
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, aPTT monitors heparin therapy,
and hemoglobin monitors for bleeding but does not assess therapeutic
effect .
---
,**QUESTION 3**
A client receiving vancomycin IV reports itching, facial flushing, and a
rapid heart rate during infusion. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Notify the provider immediately
B. Stop the infusion and assess the airway
C. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client
D. Administer diphenhydramine IV push
**CORRECT ANSWER: C**
**RATIONALE:** These are signs of Red Man Syndrome, a non-allergic
reaction caused by rapid vancomycin infusion. The priority action is to
slow the infusion rate and monitor the client. Red Man Syndrome is not
a true allergic reaction and does not require stopping the infusion
unless severe .
---
**QUESTION 4**
A client prescribed clozapine reports fatigue and a sore throat. Which
lab value is most important to review?
, A. Hemoglobin
B. WBC count
C. Platelet count
D. Blood glucose
**CORRECT ANSWER: B**
**RATIONALE:** Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis (dangerous drop
in WBCs), which significantly increases infection risk. Sore throat and
fatigue may be early signs of this life-threatening adverse effect. WBC
monitoring is mandatory during clozapine therapy .
---
**QUESTION 5**
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin. The apical pulse is 54/min.
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the medication
B. Recheck the pulse in 30 minutes
C. Notify the provider
D. Give the dose with food
